The conversion of glucose and other hexose (sugars) into lactate or pyruvate is called? (pg143 q13)
a. Glycogenesis
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Gluconeogenesis
d. Glycolysis
d. Glycolysis
Which cells are involved in immediate hypersensitivity (type 1) reactions?
a. Eosinophils
b. Basophils
c. Plasma cells
d. Reactive lymphocytes
Pg.283 Q#.26
b. Basophils
Basophils function as mediators of immediate type hypersensitivity (type 1) reactions.
q339 pg 54
In solid phase red cell adherence assays (SPRCA) to detect platelet specific antibodies, the wells of the microtiter plates are coated with immobilized:
a red blood cells
b granulocytes
c platelets
d patient serum
c platelets
Platelets are immobilized on the wells of microtiter plates and incubated with patient serum. After washing, red cells coated with anti-human IgG are added, centrifuged and examined visually
A college student attends a beach party where raw oysters and other shellfish are consumed. The blood cultures grow gram negative bacilli. The most likely organism is:
a. Aeromonas hydrophila
b. Pseudomonas putida
c. Serratia marcescens
d. Vibrio vulnificus
Pg.422 Q#53
d. Vibrio vulnificus
Pg.490
Cells known to be actively phagocytic include:
a. Neutrophils, monocytes, basophils
b. Neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes
c. Monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils
d. Lymphocytes, eosinophils, monocytes
b. Neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes
Lymphocytes and basophils are not phagocytic
Pg. 601 Q#2
q273 pg 153
The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and:
a sodium
b potassium
c calcium
d chloride
d chloride
The HCO3 is exchanged for plasma Cl in the erythrocyte to maintain electroneutrality. This is called the chloride shift.
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) can be falsely elevated by:
a. tilting the tube
b. refrigerated blood
c. air bubbles in the column
d. specimen being too old
a. tilting the tube
A falsely-elevated ESR can be caused by high room temperature, tilting of the tube, and vibration
pg. 332 Q#307
pg 45 q287
When completing recipient pretransfusion ABO testing, the sample must be tested with which of the following reagents?
a anti-A,B; A1 cells; B cells; O cells
b anti-A; anti-B; A1 cells; A2 cells; B cells
c anti-A; anti-B; A1 cells; B cells
d anti-A; anti-B; anti-A,B; A1 cells; A2 cells; B cells
c anti-A; anti-B; A1 cells; B cells
Pretransfusion ABO testing requires anti-A and anti-B antisera for forward ABO typing andA1 cells and B cells for ABO reverse typing. The use of anti-A,B, A2 cells or O cells may be useful in resolving ABO discrepancies.
Which characteristic best differentiates Acinetobacter species from Moraxella species?
a. production of oxidase
b. growth on MacConkey agar
c. motility
d. susceptibility to penicillin
Pg.450 Q#.194
a. production of oxidase
Acinetobacter are oxidase-negative while Moraxella are oxidase-positive
Pg.503
Anti-nuclear antibody tests are performed to help diagnose:
a. Acute leukemia
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Crohn disease
b. Lupus erythematosus
ANA detects circulating antibodies to nuclear antigens in systemic rheumatic diseases, such as lupus erythematosus (SLE).
Pg. 626 Q#183
Maple syrup urine disease is characterized by an increase of which of the following? (Pg 164 q 151)
a. Phenylalanine
b. Tyrosine
c. Valine, leucine, isoleucine
d. Cystine and cysteine
c. Valine, leucine, isoleucine
Abnormal metabolism of these branched-chain amino acids (BCAA)
Which of the following RBC inclusions are seen in sideroblastic anemia and contain high amounts of iron?
a. Cabot rings
b. Howell-Jolly bodies
c. Heinz bodies
d. Pappenheimer bodies
Pg.319 Q#241
d. Pappenheimer bodies
Pappenheimer bodies are irregular clusters of small granules found in or near RBC's.
Plasma neutralization is best to verify which of the following antibodies? pg.51 q321
A. Anti-Lu^B
B. Anti-M
C. Anti-Ch/Rg
D. anti-V
C. Anti-Ch/Rg (Chido/Rodgers) antibodies to red cells is readily inhibited by plasma from Ch/Rg pos individuals
A primary drug used for the treatment of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
a. ethionamide
b. kanamycin
c. rifabutin
d. rifampin
Pg.461 Q#.263
d. rifampin
Other treatments include isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and streptomycin.
Pg.511
A substrate is first exposed to a patient’s serum, then after washing, anti-human immunoglobulin labeled with a fluorochrome is added. The procedure described is:
a. Fluorescent quenching
b. Direct fluorescence
c. Indirect fluorescence
d. Fluorescence inhibition
c. indirect fluorescence
First, react the target with an unlabeled antibody, then follow with a fluorescent dye
Pg. 630 Q#212
The function of the major lipid components of the very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) is to transport: (Pg 148 q50)
a. Endogenous triglycerides
b. Exogenous triglycerides
c. Cholesterol from peripheral cells to the liver
d. Cholesterol and phospholipids to peripheral cells
a. Endogenous triglycerides
VLDL: Triglycerides are packaged within it and ultimately delivered to the circulation (bloodstream) in this form.
q169 pg304
Which of the following are main groups of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in the WHO classification system?
a AML with myeloproliferative related changes
b AML with lymphoid differentiation
c AML with biphenotypic morphology
d AML, NOS
d AML, NOS
The 2008 WHO classification of AML. AML, NOS (not otherwise specified) is a category of AML as defined by the WHO.
pg. 68 q438
Intraoperative strategies for blood management include:
a decreased amounts of blood drawn for lab tests to reduce iatrogenic blood loss
b more orders to transfusion a single unit of Red Blood Cells vs 2 units of Red Blood Cells
c reinfusing shed blood recovered during surgery that has been washed with normal saline
d more reliance on a transfusion trigger to determine need for additional transfusions
c. reinfusing shed blood recovered during surgery that has been washed with normal saline
Blood that is shed during high-blood-loss surgery can be recovered and given back to the patient. After the blood is collected, washed, and centrifuged, the red cells are returned to the patient
What is the animal reservoir of West Nile virus?
a. mice
b. rats
c. domestic cats
d. birds
Pg.464 Q#287
d. birds
The host organism is birds, which passes on the virus through a mosquito vector to humans.
Pg.512
Tumor-associated transplantation antigens (TAAs) are not found in:
a. Fetal cells
b. Tumor cells
c. Bacterial cells
d. Viral cells
c. Bacterial cells
TAAs are found on both tumor and normal human cells, and also on viral cells, but not on bacterial cells
Pg. 622 Q#153
In amniotic fluid, the procedure used to detect hemolytic disease of the newborn is: (Pg152 q 82)
a. Measurement of absorbance at 450nm
b. Creatinine
c. Lecithin/Sphingomyelin ratio
d. Estriol
a. Measurement of absorbance at 450nm
Used to detect bilirubin in the fluid, which is associated with HDN.
pg. 302 q155
Which of the following immunohistochemical patterns is most consistent with CLL/SLL?
a CD5-/CD23-
b CD5-/CD23+
c CD5+/CD23-
d CD5+/CD23+
d CD5+/CD23+
CLL/SLL represent different clinical manifestations of one disease entity. These conditions are characterized by aberrant expression of the T lymphocyte antigen CD5. Expression of CD23 is also seen.
pg. 65 q418
Which viral diseases have a lower incidence of transfusion-associated infections due to nucleic acid testing (NAT)?
a HIV-1, HCV, WNV
b HIV-2, HBV, CMV
c HTLV I/II, HCV, WNV
d CMV, WNV, HCV
a HIV-1, HCV, WNV
Nucleic acid assays (TMA or PCR) are currently performed for the detection of HBV, HIV-1, HCV and WNV. Other serologic screening assays looking for the presence of antibody or antigen rely on enzyme immunosorbent assays or chemiluminescent immunoassays.
The causative agent of cysticercosis is:
a. Taenia solium
b. Taenia saginata
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Trichuris trichiura
Pg.471 Q#.322
a. Taenia solium
Humans can become infected by ingesting the larval form or ova. If ingested in the ova form the life cycle of the parasite cannot be completed and cysticerci encyst in various tissues, including the brain.
Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is most often associated with this condition:
a. Systemic lupus erythematosus
b. Celiac disease
c. Chronic active hepatitis
d. Goodpasture syndrome
d. Goodpasture syndrome
Goodpasture syndrome is an autoimmune disease mediated by circulating autoantibodies with specificity to the GBM and the alveolar basement membrane.
Pg. 617 Q#117