ABO + RH Blood Group Systems
Compatibility Testing
Components
Antigens
Ridiculousness
100

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results are negative? A- perform additional testing such as anti-A1 lectin and anti-A,B B- incubate at 22C or 4C to enhance weak expression C- perform testing with new reagents and retype D- run a reagent red cell panel

B - all negative results may be the result of weakened antigens or antibodies. Room temp or lower incubation may enhance expression.

100

Can Rh positive blood ever be transfused to an Rh negative person? A- Never B- Only if Rh positive blood has been previously administered C- May be transfused to males or females past childbearing age D- Depends on the responder status of the individual

C- Rh positive blood may be transfused to Rh negative males or to females past childbearing age. These Rh negative individuals must not have anti-D

100
Which component has the longest expiration date? A- Cryoprecipitate B- FFP C- Frozen RBCs D- Platelet concentrate
C- Frozen RBCs
100

An antibody associated with a positive Donath-Landsteiner test is most likely to have specificity for which blood group antigen? A- E B- M C- I D- P E- Lu

D- P

100

A group of ________ is called a blessing.

Unicorns

200
An Rh phenotyping shows no Rh antigens. What is the most probable reason for these results? A - No problem - Rh neg B - D mosaic C - Rh null D - loss of Rh antigens through disease
C - Rh null shows no Rh antigens ; loss of RH antigens is very unlikely to happen because RH antigens are integral parts of the RBC membrane.
200
What is the first step in a crossmatch after identification of patient antibodies? A - Perform a DAT on patient cells and donor units. B – Antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be crossmatched. C- Absorb any antibodies from the patient serum. D- Obtain a different enhancement medium for testing.
B- antigen typing of patient cells confirms the antibody identification; antigen typing of donor cells helps ensure the crossmatch of compatible donor units.
200
All of the following are accepted preparation methods for leukocyte reduced RBCs except: A- Filtering B- Centrifugation C- Washing D- Irradiation
D- Irradiation
200
A bleeding patient is in need of group O blood. From which ethnic group would one find the most group O donors? A- European-American B- African-American C- Asian D- Native American E- Melanesian
European-American – 44% African-American – 49% Asian - 41% Native American – 79%
200

Most lipsticks contain _________

Fish scales

300
What condition causes a loss of normal blood group antibodies? A - Viral infection B - Alloantibodies C - Immunodeficiency D - Autoimmune hemolytic antema
C- immunodefiency can contribute to the loss of normal blood group antibodies as well as other types of antibodies.
300
Screen cells and crossmatch are positive on immediate spin only and the AC is negative. Identify the problem. A- Cold alloantibody B- Cold autoantibody C- Abnormal protein D- Antibody mixture
A- A cold alloantibody would show a reaction with screen cells and donor units at immediate spin phase. The negative AC rules out autoantibodies and abnormal protein.
300
What is the storage temp and expiration date for granulocytes? A- Storage at -18C; expiration 35 days B- Storage at 1-6C; expiration 5 days C- Storage at 20-24C; expiration 24 hours D- Storage at 37C; expiration 6 hours
C- Room temp 20-24C; expire in 24 hours.
300
Which of the following Rh antigens is most common in Black and White populations? A-D B-C C-E D-c E-e
E- e
300
How many grooves does a US quarter have?
119
400
A group O patient's serum is not compatible with O cells. Given a negative AC, what is the most probable explanation? A - the patient is a chimera B - cold autoantibodies C - the patient is a Bombay phenotype D- the patient is an A2
C- Bombay phenotype - bombay individuals appear to type as group O, but have anti-H which reacts with all group O cells.
400
A crossmatch and screen cells are 2+ at immediate spin, 1+ at 37C, and negative at the IAT phase. Identify the most likely problem. A- Combination of antibodies B- Cold antibody(s) C- Rouleaux D- Testing error
B- Cold antibody. The pattern fits of a cold reacting at IS phase and of sufficient titer to persist at 37C incubation. The reactions disappear after IAT testing.
400
All of the following are advantages of using packed RBCs instead of whole blood except: A- Minimizes circulatory overload B- Minimized exposure to large volumes of electrolytes C- Decreases transfusion time D- Minimizes exposure to large volumes of anticoagulants
C- Packed RBCs actually have increased transfusion time because of greater viscosity than whole blood.
400
Which blood group protein acts as a receptor for P. vivax? A- Duffy B- MN C- Kidd D- Kell E- Lutheran
A- Duffy
400
Mona Lisa has no __________.
Eyebrows
500
What antibodies could an R1R1 individual make if exposed to R2R2 blood? A - anti-e and anti-C B - anti-E and anti-c C - anti-E and anti-C D - anti-e and anti-c
B - anti- E and anti-c. The R1R1 does not have the E or c antigen and could make anti-E and anti-c antibodies when exposed to R2R2 cells.
500
What procedure removes cold antibodies from patient serum? A- Elution B- Absorption C- ZZAP D-pH alteration of serum
B- absorption or the prewarmed technique can help remove cold antibodes from patient serum or prevent them from interfering with other testing.
500
The minimum acceptable pH of platelet units at the end of the storage period is: A- 5.2 B- 6.2 C- 4.2 D- 7.2
B 6.2
500
All of the following are structurally related carbohydrate antigens except: A- I antigen B- Le b antigen C- Jka antigen D- H antigen E- P1 antigen
C – Jka.
500
What animal has a blue tongue
Giraffe
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