Heart Failure
Assessment & Priorities
Medications & Self-Care
Cardiac Complications
Code Blue
100

The ventricle cannot contract effectively to eject blood. This type of dysfunction describes the problem.

What is systolic dysfunction?

100

Recorded every morning using the same scale, after voiding and before breakfast, this measurement helps detect changes in fluid retention.

What is daily body weight?

100

Furosemide belongs to this medication class, which increases sodium and water excretion to relieve fluid overload

What are loop diuretics?

100

A clot forms in the heart, breaks loose, and blocks a distant blood vessel. This complication describes that event.

What is thromboembolism?

100

During adult CPR, this is the recommended chest compression rate per minute.

What is 100–120 compressions per minute?

200

A stiff ventricle cannot relax and fill adequately. This type of dysfunction describes the problem.

What is diastolic dysfunction?

200

This ultrasound examination estimates ejection fraction and evaluates the heart’s chambers, valves, and pumping function.

What is echocardiography?

200

A client with heart failure gains 3 lb in 24 hours but has no severe symptoms. This action should follow the daily weight check.

What is promptly contacting the health care team?

200

Hypotension, jugular venous distention, and muffled heart sounds form this classic cluster associated with cardiac tamponade.

What is Beck’s triad?

200

For an average adult, compress at least this depth during CPR while avoiding depths greater than 2.4 inches (6 cm).

What is at least 2 inches (5 cm)?

300

A client has orthopnea, pulmonary crackles, and low oxygen saturation. Congestion from failure of this side of the heart best explains these findings.

What is left-sided heart failure?

300

A client with heart failure suddenly develops severe dyspnea, diffuse crackles, pink frothy sputum, and SpO₂ of 82%. This acute complication is the concern.

What is acute pulmonary edema?

300

A stable client with chronic heart failure plans to stay in bed all day to conserve energy. This change to the activity plan is appropriate.

What is activity as tolerated with planned rest periods?

300

During inspiration, a client’s systolic blood pressure falls by 14 mm Hg. This exaggerated inspiratory decrease has this name.

What is pulsus paradoxus?

300

These two cardiac arrest rhythms require defibrillation as soon as possible.

What are ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia?

400

A client has dependent edema, jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, and ascites. Congestion from failure of this side of the heart best explains these findings.

What is right-sided heart failure?

400

Help is already on the way for a client with acute pulmonary edema, SpO₂ 82%, and BP 168/94 mm Hg. These two immediate actions address positioning and oxygenation.

What are sitting upright and providing oxygen?

400

A client takes lisinopril and spironolactone and wants to use a potassium-based salt substitute. This electrolyte complication explains why the client needs approval from the care team first.

What is hyperkalemia?

400

After a large myocardial infarction, a client develops BP 78/46 mm Hg, cool clammy skin, confusion, and oliguria. Pump failure causing inadequate tissue perfusion suggests this type of shock.

What is cardiogenic shock?

400

Immediately after delivering a shock for VF, the nurse takes this action before the next scheduled rhythm check

What is immediately resuming CPR, starting with compressions?

500

Persistent RAAS activation worsens heart failure through these two effects: one on blood vessel diameter and one on sodium and water balance.

What are vasoconstriction and sodium/water retention?

500

After treatment, SpO₂ rises from 88% to 95% on the same oxygen flow, RR falls from 30 to 20/min, and urine output rises from 20 to 60 mL/hr. BP stays stable. This interpretation best fits the trend.

What is an improving response to treatment?

500

Before a scheduled carvedilol dose, a hospitalized client is dizzy with HR 46/min and BP 84/50 mm Hg. These are the medication decision and immediate follow-up.

What are withholding the dose and obtaining urgent bedside evaluation?

500

A client with a known pericardial effusion develops worsening dyspnea, JVD, muffled heart sounds, and BP 76/44 mm Hg. While escalating care, prepare for this urgent drainage procedure using this imaging guidance.

What is pericardiocentesis guided by echocardiography?

500

The monitor shows an organized rhythm, but an unresponsive adult has no definite pulse within 10 seconds. The code team is present. Name the arrest rhythm and the immediate treatment approach.

What is PEA, treated with CPR and epinephrine as soon as feasible?

M
e
n
u