Vital Signs Monitoring Devices
Respiration
Artificial Ventilation
Primary Assessment
Principles of Pathophysiology
Scene Size-Up
100

A patient’s radial pulse is irregular. How long should the EMT count the pulse?

A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds

D. 60 seconds

100

You find an adult patient who is unresponsive and breathing four times per minute with shallow chest rise. What should you do?

A. Apply a nasal cannula
B. Assist ventilations with a bag-mask device.
C. Place the patient in a sitting position.
D. Wait to see whether the respiratory rate improves.

B. Assist ventilations with a bag-mask device.

100

An adult patient responds only to a painful stimulus. How should you classify the patient’s responsiveness using AVPU?

A. Alert
B. Responsive to verbal stimuli
C. Responsive to painful stimuli
D. Unresponsive

C. Responsive to painful stimuli

100

A patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation appear adequate, but the cells cannot properly use the oxygen delivered to them. This is an example of:

A. Adequate metabolism
B. Cellular dysfunction
C. Increased ventilation
D. Normal perfusion

B. Cellular dysfunction

100

You arrive at a residence and smell a strong chemical odor before entering. What should you do first?

A. Enter quickly and remove the patient.
B. Ask the patient to walk outside.
C. Remain at a safe distance and request appropriate resources.
D. Open the windows before beginning care.

C. Remain at a safe distance and request appropriate resources.

200

A patient has pale, cool, and moist skin. These findings may indicate:

A. Adequate peripheral circulation
B. Improved oxygen delivery
C. Poor perfusion
D. Normal temperature regulation

C. Poor perfusion

200

A conscious patient has difficulty breathing but is ventilating adequately. Which device can generally provide the highest oxygen concentration without assisting ventilations?

A. Nasal cannula
B. Nonrebreather mask
C. Pocket mask
D. Bag-mask device without oxygen

B. Nonrebreather mask

200

Which patient should receive the highest transport priority?

A. A patient with an isolated finger injury
B. A patient with mild nausea and normal vital signs
C. A patient with altered mental status and inadequate breathing
D. A patient with a minor ankle injury who can walk

C. A patient with altered mental status and inadequate breathing

200

A patient has an adequate respiratory rate but very shallow respirations. Why might the patient still become hypoxic?

A. The heart is beating too quickly.
B. Insufficient air reaches the alveoli.
C. The kidneys are retaining fluid.
D. The blood contains too much glucose.

B. Insufficient air reaches the alveoli.

200

Which observation is part of forming a general impression during the scene size-up and initial approach?

A. The patient’s apparent age, position, and level of distress
B. The complete list of prescribed medications
C. The patient’s insurance coverage
D. The results of a detailed neurological examination

A. The patient’s apparent age, position, and level of distress

300

When taking a blood pressure reading, you use a cuff that is too small for the patient’s arm. How will this most likely affect the reading?

A. It may produce a falsely high reading.
B. It may produce a falsely low reading
C. It will only affect the pulse rate.
D. It will have no effect on the reading.

A. It may produce a falsely high reading.

300

Which finding best indicates that bag-mask ventilations are effective?

A. The abdomen rises with each ventilation.
B. The chest visibly rises with each ventilation.
C. The patient’s pulse immediately slows.
D. Air leaks around the mask

B. The chest visibly rises with each ventilation.

300

During the primary assessment, you hear snoring respirations in an unresponsive patient. This most likely indicates:

A. A partially obstructed airway
B. Normal sleep-related breathing
C. Adequate ventilation
D. Fluid loss from the circulation

A. A partially obstructed airway

300

Which condition is most likely to cause respiratory compromise by interfering with gas exchange at the alveolar level?

A. An ankle sprain
B. Fluid in the lungs
C. A fractured wrist
D. A minor skin infection

B. Fluid in the lungs

300

During the scene size-up of a motor-vehicle crash, you find two patients and one trapped occupant. What information should be communicated immediately?

A. Only the condition of the first patient
B. The number of patients and need for additional resources
C. The insurance information for each driver
D. The hospital preferred by the patients

B. The number of patients and need for additional resources

400

A patient’s pulse oximeter reads 82%, but the patient has cold fingers and dark nail polish. What should the EMT do?

A. Assume the reading is completely accurate.
B. Ignore the patient’s respiratory presentation.
C. Reposition the sensor and compare the reading with clinical findings.
D. Delay treatment until a perfect reading is obtained.

C. Reposition the sensor and compare the reading with clinical findings.

400

Why should an EMT avoid ventilating a patient too rapidly?

A. It can reduce blood return to the heart.
B. It always causes the heart to stop.
C. It prevents oxygen from entering the lungs.
D. It immediately lowers the blood glucose level.

A. It can reduce blood return to the heart.

400

An unresponsive patient has a pulse but is not breathing. What should the EMT do next?

A. Begin chest compressions only.
B. Provide artificial ventilations.
C. Obtain a complete SAMPLE history.
D. Perform a detailed physical examination.

B. Provide artificial ventilations.

400

A patient has severe blood loss following an injury. Which component of perfusion is most directly reduced?

A. Available circulating blood volume
B. Electrical activity of the brain
C. Digestive enzyme production
D. Skeletal muscle movement

A. Available circulating blood volume

400

A patient fell approximately 20 feet from a roof. Why is the mechanism of injury important?

A. It determines the patient’s medical history.
B. It predicts the patient’s exact blood pressure.
C. It suggests the possibility of serious hidden injuries.
D. It eliminates the need for a physical examination.

C. It suggests the possibility of serious hidden injuries.

500

Which finding is most concerning when assessing an adult patient’s respirations?

A. Regular respirations with equal chest rise
B. Shallow respirations with poor chest rise
C. A respiratory rate of 16 with normal effort
D. Quiet breathing without accessory-muscle use

B. Shallow respirations with poor chest rise

500

An adult patient is breathing 24 times per minute, but the breaths are shallow and irregular. The EMT should recognize that:

A. The respiratory rate confirms adequate breathing.
B. Breathing may be inadequate despite the respiratory rate.
C. Oxygen is unnecessary because the rate is above 20.
D. The patient should be instructed to hold their breath.

B. Breathing may be inadequate despite the respiratory rate.

500

A patient has severe external bleeding from the thigh. When should the bleeding be managed?

A. After obtaining a complete medical history
B. During the primary assessment
C. After completing the secondary assessment
D. Upon arrival at the hospital

B. During the primary assessment

500

A patient develops altered mental status because the brain is receiving inadequate oxygenated blood. This finding is most closely associated with:

A. Improved perfusion
B. Respiratory alkalosis only
C. Inadequate perfusion
D. Normal cellular metabolism

C. Inadequate perfusion

500

Police report that an assault scene is not yet secure. What is the EMT’s most appropriate action?

A. Enter if the patient appears seriously injured.
B. Stage in a safe location until law enforcement secures the scene
C. Approach without emergency lights
D. Ask a bystander to bring the patient to the ambulance.

B. Stage in a safe location until law enforcement secures the scene

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