Which individual would be responsible for creating and managing the overall incident action plan (IAP)?
A) Unified commander
B) Incident commander
C) Command representative
D) General staff
B) Incident commander
What is the goal of the sixth step in the Eight Step Process©?
A) Identifying the hazardous materials involved at the scene of the incident
B) Implementing the best available strategies to produce the most favorable outcome
C) Evaluating the response to the hazardous materials incident to identify areas of growth
D) Collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data at the scene of the hazardous materials incident
B) Implementing the best available strategies to produce the most favorable outcome
Which of the following is defined as the process of transferring a hazardous material from its source to another carrier?
A) Contaminant
B) Exposure
C) Decontamination
D) Contamination
D) Contamination
As a general rule, many direct-reading instruments are not designed to measure and/or detect airborne concentrations below which value?
A) 1 parts per hundred
B) 1 parts per thousand
C) 1 parts per million
D) 1 parts per billion
C) 1 parts per million
In emergency response situations, the selection of personal protective equipment cannot be addressed safely and adequately until:
A) chemical barrier charts based on degradation testing are examined.
B) tactical response objectives are determined as part of a risk-based process.
C) penetration testing is conducted to demonstrate the liquid barrier properties.
D) the breakthrough time of the chemical attack on the material is calculated.
B) tactical response objectives are determined as part of a risk-based process.
Which of the following is true of a people-dependent organization?
A) It has clearly defined objectives spelled out in standard operating procedures.
B) It lets people take on different roles in an emergency, regardless of their daily roles.
C) It delivers a consistent level of quality and service, no matter the personnel or location.
D) It can result in failed emergency response efforts if key people are not present at an incident.
D) It can result in failed emergency response efforts if key people are not present at an incident.
What is a key element of a tactic?
A) It covers the overall game plan.
B) It is broad in nature.
C) It describes goals.
D) It is objective-oriented.
D) It is objective-oriented.
Which type of decontamination method involves physically or chemically removing surface contaminants to a safe and acceptable level?
A) Gross decontamination
B) Secondary decontamination
C) Emergency decontamination
D) Mass decontamination
B) Secondary decontamination
Which of the following is the difference between a calibrated response and a response from a product to which the meter is not calibrated?
A) Detector reading
B) Lower detection limit
C) Calibration difference
D) Correction factor
D) Correction factor
Air-purifying respirators are commonly used:
A) in controlled industrial and workplace environments.
B) in environments where the contaminants are unknown.
C) when handling patients in medical facilities.
D) when investigating potential terrorism crimes.
A) in controlled industrial and workplace environments.
Which element of crew resource management (CRM) is the first and most important step in problem solving?
A) Asking questions
B) Defining the problem
C) Advocating for change
D) Collecting information
B) Defining the problem
Which of the following is true of hazardous materials strategies and tactics implemented from the defensive mode?
A) They are achieved with specific types of operations that quickly control or mitigate a problem.
B) They commit resources, such as people and equipment, to less aggressive objectives.
C) They involve waiting out a sequence of events until the incident has run its course.
D) They are typically chosen when the rescue operations can be quickly achieved regardless of risks.
B) They commit resources, such as people and equipment, to less aggressive objectives.
If contact is made with a contaminant, you should initially move contaminated personnel to a safe refuge area in the:
A) cold zone.
B) warm zone.
C) hot zone.
D) staging area.
C) hot zone.
A monitoring instrument has sampling tubing that is 6 feet long. How many seconds of lag time should you add based on the length of the tubing?
A) 3 to 6 seconds
B) 6 to 12 seconds
C) 18 to 24 seconds
D) 24 to 48 seconds
B) 6 to 12 seconds
When responding to a chemical fire at a warehouse, your partner informs you that they are having an air supply problem. You should:
A) tell your partner to remove their suit so they can breathe.
B) share your breathing apparatus with your partner in 30 second intervals.
C) exit the hazard area with your partner and move toward decontamination.
D) inform the incident commander and proceed with the rescue.
C) exit the hazard area with your partner and move toward decontamination.
To minimize your political vulnerability during or after a hazardous materials event, you should:
A) use a single emergency response guidebook for consistency.
B) communicate your level of experience to others in the field.
C) regularly question information sources for accuracy.
D) consult at least three independent reference sources.
D) consult at least three independent reference sources.
Prior to assembling a site safety and control plan for a complicated incident, you must first gain an understanding of the:
A) nature of the problem.
B) appropriate response to the situation.
C) communication structure.
D) plan for mitigation efforts.
A) nature of the problem.
When decontaminating an injured person, you should:
A) decontaminate the person’s extremities first.
B) rinse the victim beginning around their trunk.
C) use hot water to facilitate skin washing.
D) remove clothing in the direction of head to foot.
D) remove clothing in the direction of head to foot.
Which of the following tools could be used to assess the corrosivity of a hazard?
A) Biological immunoassay
B) Chemical agent monitor
C) Colorimetric indicator
D) Electrochemical cells
C) Colorimetric indicator
When measuring the breakthrough time of chemical-protective clothing, you find that no breakthrough was detected at the 8-hour mark. You would report this as a breakthrough time of:
A) inconclusive duration.
B) less than 8 hours.
C) 8 hours.
D) greater than 8 hours.
D) greater than 8 hours.
Upon arrival at the scene of a hazardous materials incident, you notice a yellowish vapor cloud rising from the scene. Since you recognize that the incident has the potential to cause immediate harm to emergency response personnel, you should:
A) notify the emergency operations center of the situation.
B) return to the specialized command vehicle to retrieve the needed equipment.
C) precede your radio transmission with the term “emergency traffic.”
D) return to the staging area to notify the staging area manager of your observation.
C) precede your radio transmission with the term “emergency traffic.”
When declaring a mayday event at the scene of a dangerous hazardous materials incident, it is critical to:
A) reduce radio contact with command.
B) cancel operations of all backup teams.
C) begin self-rescue techniques.
D) keep everyone on the same radio channel.
C) begin self-rescue techniques.
When using pre-sized tarps to help organize the decontamination area, you should ensure the tarp is a minimum of:
A) 10 feet by 20 feet.
B) 20 feet by 40 feet.
C) 30 feet by 60 feet.
D) 40 feet by 80 feet.
B) 20 feet by 40 feet.
How does temperature affect air monitoring results?
A) An increase in temperature can affect vapor concentration near a freestanding liquid.
B) A decrease in temperature can create long-term low vapor concentrations.
C) A decrease in temperature can change the concentration and composition of airborne contaminants.
D) An increase in temperature increases the vapor pressure of most chemicals.
D) An increase in temperature increases the vapor pressure of most chemicals.
Which type of gloves should you select when you expect exposure to petroleum solvents?
A) Synthetic rubber
B) Synthetic plastic
C) Polyvinyl alcohol
D) Leather rescue
C) Polyvinyl alcohol