Anemia Pharm
VTE Pharm
VTE Phys
CBC
Coag testing
Vignettes
100

What is the synthetic form of folic acid?

Vitamin B9

100

What is the only IV option for anticoagulation? Describe its mechanism of action

unfractionated heparin; binds to antithrombin and increases its affinity for thrombin (IIa) via the ternary complex. Also binds factor Xa

100

The extrinsic pathway is activated by ___________ binding with _________


tissue factor; factor VIIa

100

_______ is the primary driver of increased RBC mass. Where does it come from and what triggers it?

Erythropoietin; released from the kidneys 2/2 hypoxia

100

In patients on warfarin for atrial fibrillation and/or VTE, goal INR should be

2-3

100

Your patient is receiving an iron infusion when they start getting flushing of the face and complain of pain in the chest and back. You suspect they are having a __________ reaction. What is your next step? What medication should you NOT give?

Fishbane; stop the infusion (can restart if symptoms resolve); antihistamines (can worsen symptoms)

200

Iron is absorbed in the _________, so what type of oral iron supplements should be avoided?

duodenum; enteric coated or sustained release (will release too distally in the GI tract)

200

What are the vitamin K dependent coagulation factors? What does Warfarin do to them?

2, 7, 9, 10

Warfarin inhibits production (but does not affect existing factors)

200

What is Virchow's triad?

how we think about VTE pathogenesis

Venous stasis, vascular injury, hypercoagulability

200

Reticulocytes are immature RBCs which reflect the rate of ______ _________. Low or normal reticulocyte counts are seen in _______ anemias, while high reticulocyte counts occur when bone marrow is responding normally to ______ or ________

RBC production; underproduction; blood loss or hemolysis

200

Why might Ferritin, Factor VIII, and Fibrinogen be falsely elevated in acute tissue inflammation?

they are all acute phase reactants

200

You have a patient who presents with new anemia. They have a history of hypertension, T2DM, and CKD. You suspect this is what type of anemia? What medication should your patient be started on?

Anemia of chronic disease

iron therapy 

erythropoiesis stimulating agents if iron therapy doesn't work

300

What medications can interact with absorption of oral iron supplementation?

Any calcium containing supplements (chelates)

Any medications that cause decreased acidity (PPIs, H2RAs)

300

What is the mechanism of action of fibrinolytics?

Promoting conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which acts as a fibrinolytic

300

Describe the relationship between age and risk of developing VTE

risk doubles with every decade after 50- age is an independent risk factor!

300

What are the three hemolysis labs and what findings would you expect to see?

LDH- increased

Bilirubin- increased (indirect hyperbilirubinemia)

Haptoglobin- decreased

300
Heparin is monitored and dosed using ____ or __________


Warfarin is monitored and dosed using ______

PTT or antifactor Xa

INR

300
You're working at an emergency department and go to see a new patient. The patient has severe color changes and swelling to one entire leg and you notice the start of gangrene in their foot. What do you suspect? How do you treat them? After immediate intervention, what else should they be evaluated for?

Phlegmasia cerulia dolens

Consider fibrinolytics due to limb threatening diseasee

Evaluate for malignancy (present in 50% of cases)

400
Why are patients s/p gastric bypass surgery more likely to experience vitamin B12 insufficiency? Can they be treated with oral replacement?

They don't really have gastric parietal cells, so cannot produce intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12.

Yes, but need much higher doses

400

What are the two low molecular weight heparins? How is dose calculated? In what patient population should these medications be used cautiously or swapped for UFH?

Dalteparin and Enoxaparin

weight-based dosing

Cautiously in renal insufficiency

400

Why is malignancy considered a hypercoagulable state?

tumor cells secrete procoagulant substances

patients often have decreased levels of protein C, S, antithrombin

400

MMA and homocysteine are increased in __________

Homocysteine only is increased in ___________

Vitamin B12 deficiency

folate deficiency

400

What tests are used for confirming a suspected diagnosis of HIT?

ELISA for PF4 antibody and/or serotonin release assay

400

Your patient was admitted for a PE 6 days ago and is on UFH for anticoagulation. On labs you notice a significant drop in their platelet count. What are you concerned for? What is your next step? Do you start other medications?

heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

STOP anticoagulation

Start a DOAC, particularly factor Xa inhibitor (do not give LMWH, cross reaction will occur)

500

Describe the mechanism of action of hydroxyurea

selectively inhibits ribonucleoside diphosphate reductase to halt cell cycle. This causes increased cell destruction and a change in the bone marrow to produce healthier cells
500

With use of many anticoagulants for initial treatment of VTE, you need to start them on two anticoagulants to get appropriate effect. Which two medications are available as a higher dose to start and can be decreased for maintenance therapy?

rivaroxaban (Xarelto) and apixaban (Eliquis

500
What are the four major antithrombotic pathways?

Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) blocks activation of factor VII

antithrombin blocks activation of factor X and blocks thrombin (IIa)

Protein S and Protein C block activation of factors V and VIII


500

Iron deficiency vs Inflammatory anemia lab values

Ferritin:

Serum iron:

TIBC:

Ferritin: low in iron deficiency, normal-high in inflammatory

Serum iron: low in both

TIBC: high in iron deficiency, low in inflammatory

500

In liver disease, all clotting factors except factor ____ will be decreased. Why?

VIII- it is also made in the kidney, brain, and lungs

500
You have a patient with the following findings on CBC and coags:


PLT: normal

PTT: prolonged

PT/INR: normal

This leads you to suspect a problem with the _____ pathway as seen which two disorders?

intrinsic; Hemophilia A + B

600

If sickle cell patients are not tolerating or improving with hydroxyurea, what are the alternative or add-on therapies? What are their mechanisms of action?

Crizanlizumab (Adakveo)- MAB prevents sickle cells from adhering to vessel walls and causing vascular occlusion

L-glutamine- increases NAD levels in sickle cells to prevent RBC oxidative damage

600

Reversal agents

UFH/LMWH: 

Indirect factor Xa inhibitors: 

Direct factor Xa inhibitors: 

Dabigatran:

Warfarin:


Protamine sulfate

None

Andexanet alfa (AndexXa)

Idarucizumab (Praxbind)

FFP (fresh frozen plasma)


600

How to evaluate:

Low probability of PE (Wells less than 2)

Intermediate probability (Wells 2-6)

High risk (Wells over 6)

Low- apply PERC, if negative done, if positive d-dimer

Intermediate- d-dimer, if positive imaging

High- imaging (CTA or V/Q scan)

600

Your patient has a fever and elevated WBCs. What findings on PBS would support your suspicion of infection?

toxic granulations or Dohle bodies

600

If a mixing study is performed and the clotting test normalizes, this indicates the patient has a factor _______. If it does not normalize this indicates a factor _______

deficiency; inhibitor

600

Your patient on blood thinners presents to clinic with an open area of blackened skin on their leg. You check their chart and confirm your suspicion that they are taking __________. What are you concerned for? What is the underlying pathophysiology?

Warfarin- concerned for warfarin induced skin necrosis. Protein C and S inhibited more rapidly than clotting factors, creates paradoxical hypercoagulable state

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