Aeromedical Factors
ADM and Risk Management
Airport Operations
Radio Communications
Airspace 1
100

List and describe the 4 types of hypoxia

1. Hypoxic (insufficient partial pressure)

2. Hypemic (bloods inability to carry O2)

3. Histotoxic (drugs and alcohol)

4. Stagnant (excessive G's)

100

Define hazard vs risk

Hazard: present condition, event, object, or circumstance that could lead to or contribute to an unplanned or undesired event such as an accident. 

Risk: future impact of a hazard that is not controlled or eliminated. It can be viewed as future uncertainty created by the hazard. 

100

List the 5 types of airports

1. Private

2. Civil

3. Military

4. Controlled

5. Uncontrolled

100

List the 5 things you must include in a initial ATC call?

1. Who you're talking to

2. Who you are

3. Where you are

4. What do you want

5. What do you know

100

What must you hear to enter class B airspace? Can you as a student pilot enter B airspace when you solo?

"Tail Number Cleared into the Bravo"

You must have a specific logbook endorsement to enter bravo airspace

200

No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft 

-Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage 

-While under the influence of alcohol; 

-While using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety 

-While having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in a blood or breath specimen. Alcohol concentration means grams of alcohol per deciliter of blood or grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath 

200

What is the 5 P's Process?

5 Ps (Plan, Plane, Pilot, Programming, Passengers)

200

List three types of NOTAM's and what they include.

FDC NOTAM's

NOTAM D

Pointer NOTAM

SAA NOTAM

Military NOTAM

200

What do each of the following squawk codes mean?

1200-VFR

7500-Hijacking (fly with fighter jets)

7600-Lost comms (i'm tired of talking)

7700- General emergency (do whatever I want)

200

What are the VFR weather minimums to enter class A airspace?

THERE ARE NONE DO MORE DAUNTLESS

300

If you are flying on a narrower than usual runway, what optical illusion would you experience?

You will feel high so you will incorrectly adjust by flying a lower approach.

300

Define CFIT and list three avoidance strategies

"when an airworthy aircraft is flown, under the control of a qualified pilot, into terrain (water or obstacles) with inadequate awareness on the part of the pilot of the impending collision"

  • Learn from examples

  • Safety culture

  • Technology (e.g. synthetic vision)

  • Training

  • Weather briefing

300

What is a displaced threshold? What are you authorized to do when it is present? Find an example of an airport and the runway with one.

A runway threshold located at a point other than the beginning or the end of a runway.

You can use it for takeoff and taxi, but not for landing.

300

You are going on a flight from KPRC to KPAN. What is the ATC contact sequence you would follow?

1. ATIS

2. Ground

3. Tower

4. Approach

5. CTAF

300

List the dimensions, visual identification, clearance, pilot certifications, equipment, and weather requirements for class D airspace.

  • Dimensions: Usually 4 nm radius, surface to 2,500 AGL

  • Visual identification: dashed blue line

  • Clearance: two-way radio communication (ATC must say callsign)

  • Pilot certification: No requirement

  • Equipment: two-way radio

  • Weather: 3 sm visibility, 500 feet below clouds, 1,000 feet above clouds, 2,000 feet lateral separation from clouds.

400
Define the "ICEFLAGS" acronym

Inversion

Coriolis

Elevator

False Horizons

Leans

Autokinesis

Graveyard Spin/Spiral

Somatogravic 

400

What is the PAVE checklist and give one example of each.

Pilot

Airplane 

Environment

External factors

400

For traffic patterns define standard:

Altitude

Direction

Entry

Distance from runway

Departure

Altitude: 1000' AGL

Direction: Left turns

Entry: 45 to the downwind

Distance: 1/2 to 3/4 of a mile

Departure: 45 to the upwind or downwind

400

List the 4 times you must be equipped with at least a Mode C transponder.

  • In class A, B, or C airspace

  • Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of class B or C airspace up to 10,000’ MSL

  • Class E airspace above 10,000’ MSL

  • Within 30 miles of a class B airport 

400

What are the different altitudes Class E airspace can start at?

Surface

700' AGL

1200' AGL

500

What is empty field myopia and how do you correct for it?

Lack of detail (empty blue sky) = changing focal point (nearsighted in most people)

Continue scanning and change your focal point

500

List the 5 hazardous attitudes and their antidotes.

Impulsivity: Slow down, think first


Resignation: I am not helpless

Invulnerability: It could happen to me

Macho: Taking chances is foolish

Anti-authority: Follow the rules they're usually right

500

See chart supplement for KRNT

What airspace does KRNT become when the tower closes?

What is TPA WEST of the field?

What direction of traffic is 34?

What frequency would you use when the tower closes?

1. Class G

2. 1218'

3. Right traffic

4. 124.7

500

Spell out Supercalifragilisticexpialidocious using the phonetic alphabet. 

I ain't typing all that out.

500

List the limitations and requirements for Special VFR

  • Below 10,000 MSL

  • Controlled airspace

  • ATC clearance

  • Clear of clouds

  • 1 sm visibility

  • Not between sunset and sunrise unless…

  • Pilot has instrument rating and aircraft is IFR certified

  • Not allowed at most Class B airports

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