Hemo
Micro
Chem
Blood bank
Immuno
100
The characteristic morphologic feature in folic acid deficiency is
A.Microcytosis
B. Target cells
C. Macrocytosis
D. Burr cells
Macrocytosis
100
The oxidase test is used to presumptively identify which of these organisms:
A. Escherichia
B. Enterobacter
C. Serratia
D. Neisseria
D. Neisseria
Escherichia, Enterobacter and Serratia are all oxidase negative
100
A reciprocal relationship exists between:
A.sodium and potassium
B.calcium and phosphate
C..chloride and CO2
D.calcium and magnesium
B. calcium and phospate
100
The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:
A.12.0 g/dL (120 g/L)
B.12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)
C.13.0 g/dL (130 g/L)
D.13.5 g/dL (135 g/L)
C. 13 g/dL
100
IL-4 can stimulate B cells to produce IgE, a major contributor to:
A. Type 1 hypersensitivity
B. Type 2 hypersensitivity
C. Type 3 hypersensitivity
D. Type 4 hypersensitivity
A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve the production of IgE, stimulated by IL-4.
200
A patient is admitted with a history of chronic bleeding secondary to peptic ulcer. hematology workup reveals a severe microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Iron studies were requested. Which of the following would be expected in this case
Result; serum iron; TIBC; storage iron
A; decreased; increased; increased
B; increased; decreased; increased
C; decreased; increased; decreased
D; increased;normal; decreased
C; decreased; increased; decreased
200
This is consistent with Plasmodium:
A.falciparum
B.malariae
C.ovale
D.vivax
D. Vivax
200
Which of the following crystals would most likely be present in an amber-colored urine yielding a positive bilirubin?
A.cystine
B.cysteine
C.tyrosine
D.uric acid
C. tyrosine
An amber-colored urine is associated with the presence of bilirubin, which is confirmed by the reaction on the reagent test strip. The presence of bilirubin in the urine sample suggests liver disease or damage. Tyrosine crystals and leucine crystals may be seen in patients with liver disease due to impaired amino acid metabolism.
200
A prospective donor with which of the following health histories would be accepted for blood donation?
A.hepatitis B immune globulin 2 months ago
B.HIV prevention drugs 6 months ago
C.blood transfusion 2 months ago
D.travel to malaria endemic country 1 month ago
B.An individual taking HIV prevention drugs (PrEP & PEP) is eligible to donate 3 months after the last dose. Hepatitis B immune globulin administration is a 12-month deferral. A potential donor is deferred for 3-months after receiving a blood transfusion. Travel to a malarial-endemic area is a 3-month deferral after departure.
300
The most appropriate screen test for hemoglobin S is:
A. dithionite solubility
B. hemoglobin electrophoresis
C. ESR
D. osmotic fragility
A. dithionite solubility
300
The organism shown in this picture is a:
A. amoeba
B.flagellate
C. filaria
D. sporozoan
B.The image displays the trophozoite form of Giardia duodenalis (syn lamblia), a protozoan flagellate parasite.
300
A.acute hepatitis
B.chronic hepatitis
C.obstructive jaundice
D.liver hemangioma
A. acute hepatitis
In acute hepatocellular disorders, the serum levels of AST and ALT can be 100× the upper limit of normal. Slight increases of the enzyme activities are seen in chronic hepatitis, hemangioma, and obstructive jaundice.
300
A unit of Red Blood Cells that expires in 32 days has just been irradiated. The expiration date of this unit will:
A.remain the same
B.be reduced by 4 days
C.be reduced by 14 days
D.be increased by 2 days
B.When red blood cell products are irradiated, the expiration date will be the original date or 28 days from the date of irradiation, whichever is sooner.
300
What type of pattern is seen here?
A. Speckled
B. Homogenous
C. Mitotic
D. Centromere
A. speckled
400
Which of these following bone marrow findings favors the diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
A.presence of Reed Sternberg cells
B.sheaths of immature plasma cells
C.presence of occasional flame cell
D.presence of plasmacytic satellitosis
B.Sheets or clusters of plasma cells may be seen in the bone marrow in multiple myeloma.
400
A yellow colony from a wound culture tested catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. The organism stained as gram-positive cocci in clusters. Which of the following tests would differentiate between a coagulase-negative Staphylococcus and Micrococcus?
A.novobiocin susceptibility
B.leucine aminopeptidase (LAP) production
C.furazolidone (100 µg/disk) susceptibility
D.hydrolysis of bile esculin
C.Micrococcus and Staphylococcus can be differentiated by susceptibility to furazolidone (100 µg/disk). Staphylococcus is susceptible; Micrococcus is resistant.
400
A 9-month-old boy from Israel has gradually lost the ability to sit up, and develops seizures. He has an increased amount of a phospholipid called GM2 ganglioside in his neurons, and he lacks the enzyme hexosaminidase A in his leukocytes. These findings suggest:
A.Niemann-Pick disease
B.Tay-Sachs disease
C. PKU
D.Hurler syndrome
B.Tay-Sachs disease is a rare inherited disorder characterized by the near-total deficiency of the enzyme N-acetyl-beta-hexosaminidase A. The enzyme is responsible for the hydrolysis of the beta (1,4)-glycosidic bond between N-acetylgalactosamine and galactose in GM2 ganglioside. Niemann-Pick disease and Hurler syndrome are lysosomal disorders as is Tay-Sachs. Phenylketonuria results from an absent enzyme, but is an inborn error of metabolism.
400
Which of the following would be the best source of Platelets for transfusion in a case of fetal and neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (FNAIT)?
A. paternal platelets
B. maternal platelets
C. random donor platelets
D. sibling platelets
B.When platelets are needed in a case of FNAIT, maternal platelets can be transfused. These platelets will lack the HPA antigen to which the anti-HPA antibody is directed. Paternal platelets, random donor platelets and sibling platelets will most likely express the HPA antigen to which the causative anti-HPA antibody is directed. Maternal platelets used to treat FNAIT are washed prior to transfusion to remove maternal antibody.
500
The anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin is:
A. LMWH
B.argatroban
C.warfarin
D.rivaroxaban
B. Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that reversibly binds and inactivated free and clot-bound thrombin. LMWH will inhibit both factor IIa and Xa, whereas warfarin inhibits vitamin-K-dependent factors. Rivaroxaban is an oral direct anti-Xa inhibitor.
500
Which of the following is the most useful morphological feature in identifying the mycelial phase of Histoplasma capsulatum?
A. arthrospores in every other cell
B. 2 um microspores
C. 8- 14 µm tuberculate macroconidia
D.5- 7 µm nonseptate macroconidia
C. 8- 14 µm tuberculate macroconidia
500
What is the best method to diagnose lactase deficiency?
A.H2 breath test
B.plasma aldolase level
C.LD level
D.D-xylose test
A.Diagnosis of lactase deficiency by H2 breath test based on bacteria acting on unabsorbed disaccharides.
500
What is the primary reason that infectious agents can be transmitted following blood transfusion?
A.pathogen reduction technology failure
B.donor in the window period of early infection
C.leukocyte-reduction failure
D.donor history questionnaire not completed
B
500
What disease is associated with this ANA pattern
A. Lupus
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. CREST syndrome
D. sjogren's syndrome
C. Centromere is associated with CREST
600
Which of these clinical conditions has a B-cell origin?
A.Sézary syndrome
B.large granular lymphocytosis
C.Sternberg sarcoma
D.Waldenström macroglobulinemia
D. Waldenström macroglobulinemia is a B cell malignancy.
600
Crust from a cauliflower-like lesion on the hand exhibited brown spherical bodies 6 - 12 µm in diameter when examined microscopically. A slow-growing black mold grew on Sabouraud dextrose agar. Microscopic examination revealed cladosporium, phialophora and fonsecaea types of sporulation. The probable identification of this organism is:
A.Fonsecaea pedrosoi
B.Pseudallescheria boydi
iC.Phialophora verrucosa
D.Cladosporium carrionii
A. Only Fonsecaea pedrosoi produces cladosporium, phialophora and fonsecaea types of sporulation simultaneously.
600
A 21-year-old man with nausea, vomiting, and jaundice has these laboratory findings:
A.unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, probably due to hemolysis
B.unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, probably due to toxic liver damage
C.conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, probably due to hepatocellular disease
D.conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, probably due to hepatocellular obstruction
D.The results point to hepatocellular disorder and highly elevated AST but near normal alkaline phosphatase, typical of acute hepatitis.
600
According to AABB Standards, Platelets prepared from Whole Blood shall have at least:
A.5.5 × 1010 platelets per unit in at least 90% of the units tested
B.6.5 × 1010 platelets per unit in 90% of the units tested
C.7.5 × 1010 platelets per unit in 100% of the units tested
D.8.5 × 1010 platelets per unit in 95% of the units tested
A. Per AABB Standards, at least 90% of the Platelets prepared from Whole Blood that are sampled must contain ≥5.5 × 1010 platelets.
600
This antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is viewed using fluorescent microscopy, which pattern is this?
nucleolar