Breathe Me
(Oxygenation & ABB)
Skin
(Wounds)
Metabolism & Labs
Emergencies
Other
Side Effects
Newborn & Peds
100

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is instructed to perform pursed lip breathing. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate reason for performing this type of breathing? 1. Increase total lung volume to ease the exchange of air 2. Create back-pressure in the airways to ease airflow 3. Decrease the tidal volume to ease air exchange 4. Decrease the amount of breaths required to exchange air

Create back-pressure in the airways to ease airflow

100
Caused when perfusion over a boney prominence is impaired
What is pressure ulcer
100
The nurse performs this to screen for malnutrition
What is nutritional assessment
100

Clinical sign, indicated by an abnormally elevated core body temperature, which is defined as ≥38.3°C (≥≈101°F).

What is Pyrexia


What are signs/symptoms of hyperthermia in newborns?


How do we care for patients who have heat stroke?

100

Identifying One Type of Hearing Loss

There are four types of hearing loss:

  • Conductive Hearing Loss
    Hearing loss caused by something that stops sounds from getting through the outer or middle ear. This type of hearing loss can often be treated with medicine or surgery.
  • Sensorineural Hearing Loss
    Hearing loss that occurs when there is a problem in the way the inner ear or hearing nerve works.
  • Mixed Hearing Loss
    Hearing loss that includes both a conductive and a sensorineural hearing loss.
  • Auditory Neuropathy Spectrum Disorder
    Hearing loss that occurs when sound enters the ear normally, but because of damage to the inner ear or the hearing nerve, sound isn’t organized in a way that the brain can understand. 
100

This syrup can produce flatulence, abd discomfort and dehydration. I would stick to the maple variety on my pancakes.

What is Lactulose

100

A school nurse is assessing a child for pediculosis capitis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse recognize as an indication of this condition?

Firmly attached white particles on the hair

Answer Rationale:

Pediculus capitis, or head lice, are tiny parasitic insects that live on the scalp and can be spread by close contact with other people. Their eggs (nits) appear much like flakes of dandruff but stick firmly to the hair shaft instead of flaking off of the scalp.


What is the treatment?

200

A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is performing an admission assessment of a client who has COPD with emphysema. The client reports that he has a frequent productive cough and is short of breath. The nurse should anticipate which of the following assessment findings for this client?

Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest

Answer Rationale:

The nurse should anticipate an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest (barrel chest) because of chronic hyperinflation of the lungs.

Additonal Question: What are some 

Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest

Answer Rationale:

The nurse should anticipate an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest (barrel chest) because of chronic hyperinflation of the lungs.

Additional question: What are some interventions for COPD patients to improve oxygenation?


200

Can diabetes delay wound healing?

Yes

Why?

Bonus x3: What is one key teaching point to give expectant mothers with gestational diabetes?

200
This blood test best reveals the client's nutritional status
What is protein or albumin level
200

What is one manifestation of aortic stenosis?

fatigue

shortness of breath

rapid heart rate

chest pain

dizziness

murmur


200

Without treatment, the blocked parts of the intestine can die, leading to serious problems.

What is a bowel obstruction


Bonus: What are manifestations of a large bowel obstruction?


200

This med works by regulating carb & fat metabolism and helps muscle & adipose tissues to absorb blood glucose. Most common side effect is nausea and diarrhea.

What is Metformin

200

A nurse is caring for a child who has otitis media with effusion. The nurse should identify that which of the following manifestations indicates a tympanic membrane rupture?

Sudden pain relief

Answer Rationale:

Accumulation of exudate caused by otitis media with effusion increases pressure behind the tympanic membrane. The pressure releases when the tympanic membrane ruptures, which results in sudden pain relief.


P.S.

Popping sensation when swallowing

Answer Rationale:

Feeling a popping sensation when swallowing is a manifestation of otitis media with effusion but does not indicate a tympanic membrane rupture.

300

A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas (ABG) results of a client who the provider suspects has metabolic acidosis. Which of the following results should the nurse expect to see?

pH below 7.35

Answer Rationale:

With acidosis, the pH is below 7.35. However, the pH alone does not indicate whether the problem is metabolic or respiratory. A pH above 7.45 indicates alkalosis

300
Surgical wounds heal this way
What is primary intention
300

The following are to help reduce what?

  • Exercise several days per week.
  • Eat a diet low in saturated and trans fats.
  • Include lots of fruits, vegetables, beans, nuts, whole grains, and fish regularly into your diet. (The Mediterranean diet is an excellent heart-healthy eating plan.)
  • Stop eating red meat and processed meats like bacon, sausage, and cold cuts.
  • Drink skim or low-fat milk.
  • Maintain a healthy weight.
  • Eat lots of healthy fats, like avocado, almonds, and olive oil.


What is hyperlipidemia

300

Right or left: Peripheral edema Hepatomegaly Ascites Anorexia Nausea Weakness Weight gain

What are signs and sypmtoms of right sided heart failure?

300

What is one side effect of Chondroitin-Glucosamine?

  • nausea, diarrhea, constipation;
  • stomach pain, gas, bloating

Glucosamine products might be derived from the shells of shellfish, there is concern that the supplement could cause an allergic reaction in people with shellfish allergies. Glucosamine might worsen asthma. There's some concern that glucosamine might raise eye pressure.

300

This med, derived from a plant found in your garden can produce dizziness, irregular heart beat, syncope and bradycardia.

What is Digoxin

300

A nurse is caring for a child who is allergic to penicillin. The nurse should verify which of the following prescriptions with the provider? 

A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate 

B. Gentamicin 

C. Erythromycin 

D. Amphotericin B 

A. 

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

Answer Rationale:

Penicillin is the most common medication allergy. Clients who are allergic to one penicillin medication should be considered allergic to all penicillins, which would include amoxicillin-clavulanate. Reactions may mild or life-threatening.

400
Occurs when alveolar ventilation is not adequate to meet oxygen demands
What is hypoventilation
400
The nurse would hope to see this in the wound bed to indicate healing
What is granulation
400
Difficulty or inability to swallow properly this can result in choking risk
What is dysphagia
400

Someone suffering from hypothermia will do this as an effort to warm the body, what is this?

what is shivering

Can newborns shiver? 

400

Which of the following arterial blood gas values is MOST indicative of respiratory alkalosis? 1. PaO2 80 mmHg 2. PaO2 100 mmHg 3. PaCO2 25 mmHg 4. PaCO2 45 mmH

PaCO2 25 mmHg

400

This ACE inhibitor can produce a dry, persistant cough, abdominal pain, metallic taste in the mouth and angioedema.

What is Altace

400

A nurse is instructing the mother of a toddler who has iron-deficiency anemia to increase iron in the child’s diet in addition to the prescribed iron supplement. What is a white meat that can be suggested?

Tuna fish

Answer Rationale:

Good sources of iron that are more readily absorbed than plant sources include seafood, meat, and eggs.

Bonus! x2 points

When should you take ferrous sulfate?

500

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and whose respirations are shallow and 9/min. Which of the following acid-based imbalances should the nurse identify the client as being at risk for developing initially?

 Respiratory acidosis

Answer Rationale:

Respiratory acidosis represents an increase in the acid component, carbon dioxide, due to inadequate excretion of it, and an increase in the hydrogen ion concentration (decreased pH) of the arterial blood. A major cause of this imbalance is hypoventilation from anesthetics or opioids.

500
When cleaning the wound, move the gauze in this direction
What is left to right (right to left) or top to bottom
500
This age group experiences rapid growth and requires extra protein, vitamins and minerals
What is infants or infants through school-age children
500

Name one way you can manage asthma in a child.


  1. Have a plan and stick to it. Your child should have an asthma action plan. ...
  2. Take medicines as prescribed. ...
  3. Identify and avoid triggers. ...
  4. Make sure your child gets a yearly flu vaccine. ...
  5. Use tools when necessary. ...
  6. Know the signs of a flare-up. ...
  7. Know what to do for a severe flare-up.

How does a peak flow meter work?

500

What is one manifestations of tuberculosis?

  • Coughing for three or more weeks.
  • Coughing up blood or mucus.
  • Chest pain, or pain with breathing or coughing.
  • Unintentional weight loss.
  • Fatigue.
  • Fever.
  • Night sweats.
  • Chills.

What is an early manifestation of TB

500

This treatment for COPD can cause paradoxical bronchospasm, intraocular pressure and urinary retention.

What is Atrovent

500

A nurse is planning nutritional teaching for a client who is experiencing fatigue due to iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client? 

A. Rasins

B. Black Tea

C. Black Beans

D. Whole Milk

C. Black Beans

P.S. Should you take Ferrous Sulfate with dairy products?

600

 client is admitted to the emergency room with a respiratory rate of 7/min. Arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal the following values. Which of the following is an appropriate analysis of the ABGs?

pH 7.22
PaCO2 68 mm Hg
Base excess -2
PaO2 78 mm Hg
Saturation 80%
Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L

 Respiratory acidosis

Answer Rationale:

Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is retention of CO2 due to an impairment of respiratory function. It can be the result of respiratory depression, seen with anesthesia or opioid administration; inadequate chest expansion, due to a weakness of the respiratory muscles or constriction to the thorax; an obstruction of the airway, seen in aspiration, bronchoconstriction, or laryngeal edema; or from an inability of the lungs to adequately diffuse gases (O2 and CO2), resulting from conditions such as pneumonia, COPD, chest trauma, or pulmonary emboli. Arterial blood gases will reveal a pH that is lower than the normal reference range (7.35 – 7.45) and a CO2 level that is higher than the normal reference range (35 – 45 mm Hg)

600

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for heat therapy for treatment of cellulitis of the right lower leg. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"I'll wrap a warm, wet towel around my right calf every 4 hours."

Answer Rationale:

Moist heat is more effective than dry heat in treating cellulitis. Moist heat relieves the manifestations of inflammation by increasing blood flow to the affected area. The nurse should instruct the client to elevate the right leg 8 to 15 cm (3 to 6 in) above the level of the heart and apply warm, moist heat to the site every 2 to 4 hr.

Should you use a heating pad? Or Dry heat?

600

Commonly due to inadequate levels of parathyroid hormone or vitamin D, or due to resistance to these hormones

What is hypocalcemia

600

Identify one complication of a femur fracture.

What is:

hemorrhage, internal organ injury, wound infection, fat embolism, and adult respiratory distress syndrome

600

A charge nurse is planning a room assignment for a client who has a productive cough, a questionable chest x-ray, and a positive Mantoux test. Room 208 is a private, negative-pressure airflow room; room 212 is a semi-private, positive-pressure airflow room; 214 is a negative-pressure, semi-private room; and room 216 is a private, positive-pressure airflow room. To which of the following rooms should the nurse assign the client?

 208

Answer Rationale:

A client who has or might have tuberculosis requires airborne precautions. That means a private room with negative-pressure airflow. Room 208 is the only one of these options that fits these requirements.


How should we transport this patient?

600

What is a side effect of alendronate?

  • nausea.
  • stomach pain.
  • constipation.
  • diarrhea.
  • gas.
  • bloating or fullness in the stomach.
  • change in ability to taste food.
  • headache
600

A nurse is discharging a child who has sickle cell anemia after an acute crisis episode. What should the nurse educate the parents on encouraging to help prevent another crisis?

"Offer fluids to your child multiple times every day."

Answer Rationale:

Preventing dehydration is an important step in preventing a sickle cell crisis. The nurse should provide the parents with a specific fluid goal for the child to reach each day.

700
You have a 68-year-old male you are caring for who has just been extubated. You are concerned the patient is developing pneumonia. What would 2 signs and symptoms of sepsis be? And what type of pneumonia would you expect?

Sepsis Symptoms

  • Fever and chills.
  • Very low body temperature.
  • Peeing less than usual.
  • Fast heartbeat.
  • Nausea and vomiting.
  • Diarrhea.
  • Fatigue or weakness.
  • Blotchy or discolored skin.

Ventalitaor associated pneumonia

700

A nurse is providing teaching to a parent of a preschooler who has eczema. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Apply a topical corticosteroid ointment to the affected area.

Answer Rationale:

The child might require a topical corticosteroid ointment to use during flare-ups to decrease inflammation.


How do you identify skin infections?

700

What is one manifestation of hypothyroidism?

  • Fatigue.
  • Increased sensitivity to cold.
  • Constipation.
  • Dry skin.
  • Weight gain.
  • Puffy face.
  • Hoarseness.
  • Muscle weakness.

Daily Double! Again!!!! 

How does levothyroxine work?

700

What is one sign or symptom to indicate that the infant has severe dehydration?

  • Dry tongue and dry lips.
  • No tears when crying.
  • Fewer than six wet diapers per day (for infants), and no wet diapers or urination for eight hours (in toddlers).
  • Sunken soft spot on infant's head.
  • Sunken eyes.
  • Dry and wrinkled skin.
  • Deep, rapid breathing.
700

What is one clinical indication a patient may have a malabsorption disorder?

  • Fats. You may have light-colored, foul-smelling stools that are soft and bulky. 
  • Protein. You may have dry hair, hair loss, or fluid retention. 
  • Certain sugars. You may have bloating, gas, or explosive diarrhea
700

What drug can cause angioedema?

Ace-inhibitors


Patients most commonly present with swelling of the lips, tongue, or face, although another presentation is episodic abdominal pain due to intestinal angioedema.

Daily Double: At what literacy level should we educate patients/families?

700

What are one of the top 2 reasons nurses can educate parents about to prevent otitis media?

Breastfeeding

Avoiding cigarette smoke


  1. wash hands and toys frequently to reduce your chances of getting a cold or other respiratory infection.
  2. get seasonal flu shots and pneumococcal vaccines.
  3. avoid giving your infant a pacifier.

Daily Double**Bonus Points:

How do we administer otic gtts to a pediatric patients?


For children under 3: Hold ear lobe and gently pull down and back. For children 3 and over: Hold upper part of ear and gently pull up and back. 2. Place the correct number of drops into the ear canal so they will roll into the ear along the side of the ear canal.

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