Age-Related Health Issues
Precautions & Vaccines
Guess That Disease
Lists Of Three
Assorted Questions
100

What are the clinical manifestations of ADHD?

Inattention, impulsivity, and hyperactivity.

100

What precautions are used for RSV?

Droplet and contact.

100

Name the following condition: nausea and vomiting caused by severe unilateral scrotal pain following trauma to genital region.

Testicular Torsion.

100

Name at least 3 telltale signs of Epiglottitis.

Tripod positioning, stridor, excessive drooling, muffled 'hot potato' voice, respiratory distress, extremely sore throat, sudden high fever.

100
What condition requires a patient to consume high-calorie, high-protein, and high-fat meals for normal growth and development?

Cystic Fibrosis

200

What are some risk factors/causes of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome?

Prematurity, low birth weight, maternal smoking/substance use, secondhand smoke exposure, unsafe sleep environment.

200

What is the mode of transmission for scabies and how is it managed?

Skin-to-skin contact; permethrin 5% (x 8-14 hours),  antipruritics, and treat household.

200

Name the following disease: Slapped-cheek rash, joint pain and fever; tested positive for Parvovirus B19.

Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)

200

What are the 3 main systems Cystic Fibrosis impacts?

Respiratory (lungs)

GI (pancreas, GI tract)

Reproductive (ducts)

200

What are Koplik Spots?

Bluish-white spots found on the buccal mucosa of a patient with measles.

300

What are key signs of Shaken Baby Syndrome (Abusive Head Trauma)?

Retinal hemorrhages, subdural hematoma, altered level of consciousness, irritability, poor feeding, seizures, bulging fontanel, apnea.

300

Name the 2 vaccinations that help to reduce the risk of pneumonia? 

1. Haemophilus influenzane type B (Hib)

2. Pneumococcal conjugate (PCV)

300

Name the following disease: sandpaper rash and 'strawberry tongue'; complications include rheumatic heart disease and glomerulonephritis.

Scarlet Fever

300

What are the 3 components of the Atopic Triad?

1. Eczema

2. Allergic rhinitis

3. Asthma

300

What are 2 known complications of untreated Varicella?

Varicella pneumonia, meningitis, encephalitis, seizures & secondary skin infections

400

What two signs likely indicate a Failure to Thrive?

1. Weight drops below 5th percentile

2. Weight drops more than 2 percentile lines after previously being stable

400

Your patient has pertussis. Which precautions are you using and what vaccine can you get to prevent it?

1. Droplet precautions

2. DTaP (6 weeks - 6 years) or Tdap (>7 years)

400

Name the following disease: petechiae rash starting at wrists/ankles and spreads proximally, lab results indicate thrombocytopenia and hyponatremia.

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

400

What are the 3 C's of Measles (Rubeola)?

1. Cough

2. Coryza (clear nasal discharge)

3. Conjunctivitis (red, irritated eyes)

400

What sign indicates that a patient with Varicella (Chickenpox) is no longer contagious?

There are no new lesions, and all existing lesions have scabbed over.
500

What two conditions are typically caused by STDs, such as chlamydia or gonorrhea?

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) and Epididymitis.

500

Your patient has Varicella (Chickenpox). What PPE must you don before entering their room (in correct order)?

1. Gown

2. N95 Respirator

3. Gloves

500

A patient presents with lymphadenopathy, an erythematous tonsils with white exudate, and petechiae on their soft palate. What is the disease & agent responsible for these signs?

Strep Throat, Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS).

500

What are the 3 components of asthma's pathophysiology? (Name at least 2)

1. Bronchoconstriction

2. Airway inflammation

3. Secretions/mucus plugging

500

For which condition is racemic epinephrine used instead of albuterol and why?

Croup, because it targets upper airways more than albuterol, which is used for lower airways (asthma, RSV occasionally).

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