Historical Perspectives & Psychological Traditions
Behavioral Traditions
Integrative Biological Perspectives
Cognitive and Social Perspectives
Assessment & Diagnosis
100

Which of the following correctly distinguishes the supernatural tradition from the early biological tradition in historical explanations of mental illness?

A. The supernatural tradition viewed mental illness as a disease of the body, whereas the early biological tradition attributed it to possession, curses, and other non-natural forces.

B. The supernatural tradition attributed mental illness to non-natural forces such as evil spirits, curses, or celestial influences, whereas the early biological tradition attributed mental illness to physical or bodily processes.

C. Both traditions viewed mental illness as resulting from supernatural forces but differed in the treatments they used.

D. Both traditions viewed mental illness as a physical disease, but the supernatural tradition emphasized humoral imbalances while the biological tradition emphasized possession.

Correct answer: B

The supernatural tradition explained mental illness through non-natural forces, such as possession by evil spirits, witchcraft, curses, or the influence of the moon and stars. In contrast, the early biological tradition located the cause of mental illness within the body, as reflected in explanations such as the wandering uterus, humoral imbalances, and yin/yang imbalances.

100

In Watson’s Little Albert experiment, what was the conditioned stimulus (CS)? 

A. Loud noise

B. White rat

C. Fear

D. Furry blanket

B. White rat

Rat was initially neutral, became associated with loud noise → produced fear response.

100

What is heritability?

The proportion of the variance in a population explained by genes.

100

Which of the following best illustrates prepared learning? 

A. Developing fear of cars after a crash.

B. Developing fear of snakes without direct negative experience.

C. Developing fear of math tests after repeated failures.

D. Developing fear of heights after falling off a ladder.

Correct Answer: B. Fear of snakes without direct negative experience 

Prepared learning = predisposition to quickly learn survival-related fears.

100

What are the three approaches to interviewing? Define each one. 

Unstructured: open-ended, flexible, natural conversation.

- Pros: rapport, individualized.

- Cons: less reliable, may miss key areas.

Structured: standardized questions/checklists.

- Pros: reliable, systematic.

- Cons: less flexible, less personal.

Semi-structured



200

Which of the following was a success story of the biological tradition? 

A. Wandering uterus theory

B. General paresis and syphilis link

C. Trephination

D. Exorcism

Correct Answer: B. General paresis and syphilis link 

Demonstrated that a physical disease could cause psychological symptoms.

200

Which of the following correctly represents the pathway through which classical conditioning occurs?

A. Neutral Stimulus (NS) → Conditioned Response (CR); Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS) → Unconditioned Response (UCR); Conditioned Stimulus (CS) → UCR

B. Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS) → Unconditioned Response (UCR); UCS + Neutral Stimulus (NS) → association formed; Conditioned Stimulus (CS) → Conditioned Response (CR)

C. Conditioned Stimulus (CS) → Unconditioned Response (UCR); CS + Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS) → association formed; Neutral Stimulus (NS) → Conditioned Response (CR)

D. Unconditioned Response (UCR) → Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS); UCR + Neutral Stimulus (NS) → association formed; Conditioned Stimulus (CS) → UCS

Correct answer: B

Explanation: Before conditioning, the Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS) naturally produces an Unconditioned Response (UCR) without any learning. During conditioning, a Neutral Stimulus (NS) is repeatedly paired with the UCS, creating an association between the two. After conditioning, the previously neutral stimulus becomes a Conditioned Stimulus (CS) because it can now produce a learned Conditioned Response (CR) on its own.

Example: Food (UCS) naturally causes salivation (UCR). If a tone (NS) is repeatedly paired with food, the animal learns an association between the tone and food. Eventually, the tone becomes a CS, and the tone alone produces salivation (CR).

200

Which of the following best illustrates the diathesis–stress model? 

A. A person with schizophrenia always develops the disorder if they have the gene.

B. A person with genetic risk for depression develops it only after a major divorce.

C. A person inherits Huntington’s disease from one parent.

D. A person with ADHD has higher dopamine activity.

Correct Answer: B. Genetic risk + environmental trigger. 

  • Diathesis = vulnerability.

  • Stress = environmental factor.

  • Both needed for expression of many disorders.

200

Which of the following correctly distinguishes Bandura’s social learning theory from prepared learning?

A. Social learning proposes that fears are entirely biologically determined, whereas prepared learning proposes that all behavior is learned through direct reinforcement.

B. Social learning proposes that people can learn behaviors by observing and modeling others, whereas prepared learning proposes that humans are biologically predisposed to more readily learn fears of certain survival-relevant stimuli.

C. Social learning requires direct experience with rewards or punishments, whereas prepared learning requires observing another person experience the feared stimulus.

D. Social learning explains why humans are especially likely to fear snakes and spiders, whereas prepared learning explains how children imitate aggressive role models.

Correct answer: B

Bandura’s social learning theory emphasizes that people can learn by observing others, without necessarily experiencing consequences themselves. Prepared learning, associated with Seligman and Mineka, proposes that humans have a biological predisposition to readily acquire fears of evolutionarily relevant threats, such as snakes and spiders. Both perspectives demonstrate that learning is more complex than simply experiencing direct reinforcement or stimulus pairings.

200

Which of the following is an example of predictive validity?

A. An IQ test consistently gives the same score on two occasions.

B. A new depression scale correlates with an established scale.

C. An anxiety test accurately predicts future panic attacks.

D. A clinician agrees with another on a diagnosis.

Correct Answer: C. An anxiety test accurately predicts future panic attacks.

  • Predictive validity = ability to forecast future outcomes.

300

According to Carl Rogers’ person-centered approach, which three therapeutic conditions are thought to facilitate psychological growth?

A. Interpretation, confrontation, and behavioral reinforcement
B. Empathy, unconditional positive regard, and congruence
C. Empathy, cognitive restructuring, and unconditional positive regard
D. Congruence, exposure, and behavioral activation  

Correct answer: B 

Rogers proposed that empathy, unconditional positive regard (UPR), and congruence (authenticity) create a therapeutic environment that allows clients to develop greater self-awareness and self-acceptance and move toward their actualizing tendency, or innate drive toward growth. Conditions of worth can interfere with this process by leading people to believe that they are only acceptable or worthy under certain conditions.

300

A. Positive reinforcement: add something aversive to increase behavior; Negative reinforcement: remove something desirable to increase behavior; Positive punishment: add something desirable to decrease behavior; Negative punishment: remove something aversive to decrease behavior.

B. Positive reinforcement: add something desirable to increase behavior; Negative reinforcement: remove something aversive to increase behavior; Positive punishment: add something aversive to decrease behavior; Negative punishment: remove something desirable to decrease behavior.

C. Positive reinforcement: remove something aversive to increase behavior; Negative reinforcement: add something desirable to increase behavior; Positive punishment: remove something desirable to decrease behavior; Negative punishment: add something aversive to decrease behavior.

D. Positive reinforcement: add something desirable to decrease behavior; Negative reinforcement: remove something aversive to decrease behavior; Positive punishment: add something aversive to increase behavior; Negative punishment: remove something desirable to increase behavior.

Correct answer: B

Explanation: In operant conditioning, a consequence follows a behavior and affects how likely that behavior is to occur again. Reinforcement increases the likelihood of a behavior, whereas punishment decreases it. Meanwhile, positive means something is added, and negative means something is removed. Therefore:

  • Positive reinforcement: add something desirable → behavior increases
  • Negative reinforcement: remove something aversive → behavior increases
  • Positive punishment: add something aversive → behavior decreases
  • Negative punishment: remove something desirable → behavior decreases
300

Which of the following correctly matches each type of gene–environment interaction with its description?

A. Diathesis–stress model: genes determine which stressors a person encounters; Gene–environment correlation: environmental stress changes gene expression; Epigenetics: genetic vulnerability combines with an environmental trigger to produce a disorder.

B. Diathesis–stress model: genetic vulnerability combines with an environmental trigger to contribute to a disorder; Gene–environment correlation: genes influence the likelihood of encountering certain environments or stressors; Epigenetics: environmental factors alter gene expression.

C. Diathesis–stress model: environmental factors alter gene expression; Gene–environment correlation: genetic vulnerability requires an environmental trigger; Epigenetics: genes influence which stressors a person encounters.

D. Diathesis–stress model: disorders are caused entirely by genetic vulnerability; Gene–environment correlation: disorders are caused entirely by environmental stressors; Epigenetics: environmental experiences change a person’s DNA sequence.

Correct answer: B

Explanation: The diathesis–stress model proposes that a vulnerability, such as genetic risk, interacts with environmental stress to contribute to the development of a disorder. Gene–environment correlation refers to genetic factors influencing the likelihood that a person will encounter particular environments or stressors. Epigenetics refers to environmental influences on gene expression—for example, through processes such as DNA methylation—without necessarily changing the underlying DNA sequence.

300

Which of the following correctly describes Rescorla’s contingency model, learned helplessness, and learned optimism?

A. Rescorla argued that conditioning depends only on repeated pairings; learned helplessness occurs when people believe they have complete control over outcomes; learned optimism is associated with poorer coping.

B. Rescorla emphasized that learning depends on the predictability of events; learned helplessness can develop when repeated experiences teach a person that their actions do not affect outcomes; learned optimism emphasizes resilience and more adaptive coping.

C. Rescorla argued that unpredictable outcomes produce the strongest learning; learned helplessness increases persistence; learned optimism develops when people experience uncontrollable stress.

D. Rescorla’s model focuses exclusively on reinforcement; learned helplessness and learned optimism both propose that behavior is determined entirely by environmental rewards and punishments.

Correct answer: B

Rescorla’s contingency model demonstrated that conditioning depends on whether one event reliably predicts another, highlighting a cognitive component of learning. Learned helplessness occurs when repeated exposure to uncontrollable outcomes can lead an individual to learn that their actions have little effect and therefore stop trying. In contrast, learned optimism emphasizes more resilient ways of responding to adversity and has been associated with better coping and health outcomes.

300

Which of the following best reflects a dimensional approach to diagnosis?

A. Determining whether someone meets the criteria for schizophrenia.

B. Measuring the severity of depressive symptoms on a scale.

C. Comparing a patient to a typical DSM prototype.

D. Deciding whether someone has a disorder based on one defining symptom.

Correct Answer: B. Measuring the severity of depressive symptoms on a scale.

- Dimensional Approach to Diagnosis = Evaluates mental health symptoms and traits along a continuous spectrum of severity 

400

What is a controversy of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?

Step-by-step pyramid does not apply to everyone in the same rigid order - reflects a Western, individual view of success- does not fit collectivist-leaning cultures well, where people often put group and family needs ahead of personal self-actualization

400

How does the two-factor model account for both the development and maintenance of phobias?

  • Development: Classical conditioning pairs neutral stimulus with fear (dog bite → fear of dogs).

  • Maintenance: Operant conditioning reinforces avoidance (staying away from dogs reduces anxiety).

400

Which of the following best describes the role of the HPA axis in mental and physical health?

A. The HPA axis primarily regulates immune functioning and is unrelated to psychological stress.

B. The HPA axis regulates the stress response, and its dysregulation has been linked to anxiety and depression, while chronic stress can contribute to long-term health effects.

C. The HPA axis regulates the stress response only during childhood and becomes inactive during adulthood.

D. The HPA axis prevents the negative effects of chronic stress by increasing immune functioning and slowing biological aging.

Correct answer: B

The HPA (hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal) axis plays an important role in regulating the body's response to stress. Dysregulation of this system has been associated with anxiety and depression. When stress becomes chronic, prolonged activation of stress-response systems can also contribute to longer-term physical health effects, including immune suppression and processes associated with aging.

400

How does learned optimism differ from learned helplessness, and what are the implications for health?

  • Learned helplessness: perception of no control → hopelessness, depression.

  • Learned optimism: belief in control, positive framing → resilience, longer lifespan, better health outcomes.

  • Implication: optimism protects against stress-related illness and mental health decline.

400

What is one advantage and one limitation of structured clinical interviews compared to unstructured ones?

  • Advantage: More reliable → ensures consistency across clinicians.

  • Limitation: Less flexible → may inhibit rapport or miss individualized nuances.

500

Which of the following best describes Freud’s psychoanalytic theory and approach to treatment?

A. Psychological symptoms result primarily from learned behaviors, and treatment focuses on changing patterns of reinforcement.

B. Psychological symptoms may arise from unconscious conflicts, including conflicts among the id, ego, and superego, and psychoanalysis uses techniques such as free association, dream analysis, and interpretation to bring these conflicts into awareness.

C. Psychological symptoms result from conditions of worth that interfere with a person’s natural drive toward growth, and treatment emphasizes empathy and unconditional positive regard.

D. Psychological symptoms arise from distorted conscious thoughts, and treatment focuses on identifying and restructuring these thoughts.

Correct answer: B

Freud emphasized the importance of unconscious processes and conflicts in shaping behavior and psychological symptoms. His structural theory proposed the id, ego, and superego, while defense mechanisms operate unconsciously to manage anxiety. Psychoanalysis seeks to uncover unconscious conflicts through techniques such as free association, dream analysis, parapraxes, and interpretation, with the goal of developing insight and catharsis to relieve symptoms.

500

How can operant conditioning contribute to the maintenance of maladaptive behaviors associated with psychopathology?  

Maladaptive behaviors can be maintained when their consequences reinforce the behavior, making it more likely to occur again. For example, a person with anxiety may avoid a feared situation, which leads to an immediate reduction in fear or anxiety. This relief acts as negative reinforcement, increasing the likelihood that the person will use avoidance again in the future.

500

Which of the following correctly matches each brain structure with its primary function or association? 

A. Brain stem: higher cognition; Limbic system: movement; Basal ganglia: emotion and memory; Cerebral cortex: basic survival functions

B. Brain stem: survival functions; Limbic system: emotion and memory; Basal ganglia: movement and involvement in OCD; Cerebral cortex: higher cognition, including planning and decision-making

C. Brain stem: emotion and memory; Limbic system: higher cognition; Basal ganglia: survival functions; Cerebral cortex: movement

D. Brain stem: movement; Limbic system: survival functions; Basal ganglia: planning and decision-making; Cerebral cortex: emotion and memory

Correct answer: B

The brain stem supports basic survival functions. The limbic system, including structures such as the amygdala and hippocampus, is important for emotion and memory. The basal ganglia are involved in movement and have been implicated in OCD. The cerebral cortex supports higher-order cognition, with the frontal cortex playing an important role in planning and decision-making. Importantly, psychopathology often involves disruptions in networks and connectivity among brain regions, rather than abnormalities in a single isolated brain structure.

500

When can an emotion become maladaptive, and how might this contribute to psychopathology?  

Emotions are generally adaptive because they help signal important information and motivate action. However, they can become maladaptive when they occur at an inappropriate time or are overly intense or prolonged. For example, a panic attack involves an intense fear response occurring when there is no immediate danger, while prolonged or excessive emotional states may contribute to mood disorders.

500

What are some advantages and limitations of using projective tests (e.g., Rorschach, TAT) in clinical assessment?

Advantages:

- Can provide qualitative insights into unconscious thoughts, feelings, and themes.

- Useful as an “icebreaker” in therapy.

Limitations:

- Questionable reliability and validity.

- Susceptible to examiner bias.

- Results may not generalize well across contexts.

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