Cardiology
ID
Neuro
Pediatrics
Pulmonology
100

What are the most common organisms associated with right- vs left- sided endocarditis?

Right = S. aureus (think indwelling line or IVDA)

Left = Strep viridans


100

List some characteristics of complex febrile seizures.


100

Painless rectal bleeding < 5 yo?

Meckel's diverticulum 

Ectopic gastric mucosa is the most common form of ectopic tissue found within Meckel’s diverticulum and frequently ulcerates causing patients to present with painless rectal bleeding.

100

List the criteria for diagnosis of massive hemoptysis.

> 50 mL once; > 500 mL in 24 hours

200

Most common cause and treatment of epididymitis <35 yo? >35 yo?

< 35 yo = STI = IM Rocephin + Rx for doxy

> 35 yo = E. Coli = FQ


200

List all 4 indications for thrombolytics in acute stroke.

> 18 yo

<4.5 hours from sx onset

No head bleed

No other reversible cause (like hypoglycemia)

200

First-time/SE disadvantaged parents p/w seizing infant. Most likely diagnosis? Treatment?

Hyponatremia 2/2 formula dilution. 3% HS (4-6 mL/kg over 20 min)



200

What vent settings would be appropriate for an ARDS patient?

High PEEP (5-20)

Low Tidal Volume (4-6cc/kg)

Inspiratory Pressure < 30

Supp O2 for Sats in Low 90s


300

List the organism associated with these buzz phrases for pneumonia:

Alcoholic with currant jelly sputum

Cystic fibrosis with green sputum

Bullous myringitis

Alcoholic with currant jelly sputum = Klebsiella

Cystic fibrosis with green sputum = Pseudomonas

Bullous myringitis = mycoplasma

300

How do you treat seizures secondary to:

Eclampsia?

Isoniazid overdose?

Hyponatremia?

Mag

B6

Hypertonic saline

300

Pt presents with fever, stridor, and barky cough, but they are toxic-appearing. Most likely diagnosis? Treatment?

Bacterial tracheiitis. IV abx, airway in OR.


300

When would you start steroids for a patient with PCP/PJP pneumonia?

PaO2 < p70, A-a gradient > 35

400

 

1st Degree AV Block

PR >200, QRS after every P wave

GOOD:  Nothing to Do

 

2nd Degree (Mobitz I)

PR interval increases, then dropped beat  (Wenckebach)

GOOD:  Nothing to Do

 

2nd Degree (Mobitz II)

Stable PR interval, dropped beat

BAD:  Needs Pacemaker

 

3rd Degree AV Block

P waves and QRS disconnected

BAD:  Needs Pacemaker

 

400

How many major and/or minor Duke criteria are required for a diagnosis of IE? Name the two major and at least two minor criteria.

2 major, 1 major + 3 minor, 5 minor


400

Where is the lesion (vascular)? 83 yo p/w two hours of …

  1. RLE weakness/numbness

  2. Aphasia + R facial and RUE weakness/numbness

  3. Binocular vision changes

1. RLE weakness/numbness: ACA

2. Aphasia + R facial and RUE weakness/numbness: MCA

3. Binocular vision changes: PCA

400

Infant p/w inconsolable crying. Was being watched by nonparent. Suspect dx? Name at least three findings that would support your suspicion.

NAT: corner (bucket handle) fx, fx in different stages of healing, bruising on non-bony prominences, retinal hemorrhages, history not consistent with developmental age, patterned bruising/burns, skull fx, delayed presentation, extremely fearful/withdrawn child

500

Describe pacemaker: oversensing, undersensing, failure to capture

Undersensing = fails to sense native cardiac activity

Oversensing = electrical signal are inappropriately recognised as native cardiac activity and pacing is inhibited

Failure to capture = paced stimulus does not result in myocardial depolarisation

500

List the organism associated with these buzz phrases for pneumonia:

Bird owner with high fever and relative bradycardia

Young pt with rat exposure and ARDS

CD4 < 200, high LDH

Bird owner with high fever and relative bradycardia: psitticosis

Young pt with rat exposure and ARDS: Hanta virus

CD4 < 200, high LDH: PCP PNA



500

A sickle cell patient p/w right-sided weakness for one hour. CTH is negative. Treatment?

Exchange transfusion

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