My heart
Meds, meds & more
Bottoms up
Lucky me
I got this!
100

Name an anticoagulant?

Heparin or Warfarin (Coumadin)

100

Name an antiplatelet?

Aspirin or Clopidogrel (Plavix)

100
  • The nurse is aware of the toxicity of chemotherapy agents. Which organ shows toxicity if the patient is taking doxorubicin?
Heart
100

What is the antidote for Warfarin?

Vitamin K

200

What is the brand name for Losartan

Cozaar

200

Name a thrombolytic drug?

TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) or alteplase, reteplase, streptase, streptokinase, anistreplase.

200
  • The nurse cares for a patient on the oncology unit who is receiving chemotherapy. The patient is experiencing thrombocytopenia. Which laboratory result would be consistent with this diagnosis?

Low platelet

200
  • The nurse teaches a client who is recovering from acute renal injury to avid which type of medications?
  • Opiate
  • Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
  • Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAIDs)
  • Calcium channel blockers
200

What is the antidote for heparin

Protamine sulfate

300

What are the adverse drug reactions associated with Losartan?

Angioedema, headache, dizziness, hypotension & insomnia.

300
  • Which lab test would the nurse expect to monitor for a patient receiving furosemide (Lasix)?

Potassium

300
  • Which of the following medications can cause osteoporosis, ulcers, weight gain, & thinning of skin with long term use?

Diuretics, Barbiturates, Aminoglycosides or Corticosteroids

300
  • Which complication of chronic renal failure is treated with erythropoietin?
  • Mineral and bone disorder
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypertension
  • Anemia
300
  • Insulin glarcine (LANTUS) has an onset of _____ hours

6 hours

400

What are client interventions for Losartan?

Monitor BP before administering, monitor for CNS effects, manage for severe hypotension using IV fluid hydration, treat severe angioedema with IV epinephrine.
400
  • A patient is brought to the ER with a respiratory rate of 8 breathe per minute. He is responsive to painful stimuli, has pinpoint pupils, and has needle marks between his toes. Which drug will most likely be used to manage this patient FIRST?

Naloxone (NARCAN)

400
  • The client has neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy. You recognize that neutropenia involves a WBC count of less than what value?

1000

400
  • Which drug is often used after major orthopedic surgery when discharged from the hospital to home?
  • Anti-platelet drugs, such as aspirin
  • Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) inhibitors, such as clopidogrel (Plavix)
  • Anti-coagulants, such as warfarin sodium
  • Low-molecular-weight heparins, such as enoxaparin (Lovenox)
400

Which actions by the nurse while administering enoxaparin sodium (Lovenox) are the most correct?

  • Administers the drug subcutaneously and applies gentle pressure to the site
  • Administers the drug intramuscularly and rubs the injection site
  • Administers the drug subcutaneously and rubs the injection site
  • Administers the drug intramuscularly and applies pressure to the site
500

 What are the therapeutic uses for spironolactone?

 Treats HTN and symptoms of HF following an MI.

500
  • The nurse is preparing for a possible biological warfare incident. Which antibiotic would be the best to have on hand to prevent the spread of anthrax?

Cipro

500
  • The nurse should give the following medications to a client with severe rheumatoid arthritis

Methotrexate, Naprosyn, ASA , Plaquenil

500

Before administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) to a client with hyperkalemia, the nurse should assess for:

Bowel Sounds

500
  • Which of the following patients is at highest risk for adverse effects related to diphenhydramine (BENADRYL)?
  • 3-year-old with seasonal rhinitis
  • 6-year-old with a history of asthma
  • 25-year-old who drinks 3-4 beers a day
  • 72-year-old with a history of falling
600

What is the brand name for Spironolactone?

Aldactone

600
  • Which instruction by the nurse to a patient who is being prescribed valacyclovir (VALTREX) for future herpes eruptions is correct?
  • Limit fluids after starting this drug
  • Start the drug when lesions appear
  • OTC creams may used in addition to taking the drug
  • The lesions are not infectious while taking the drug
600
  • A patient on chemotherapy has been ordered to take epoetin alfa (Procrit). Which of the following supplement should the nurse instruct the client to strictly adhere to while taking Procrit?

Zinc, Vitamin E, Magnesium, Iron

600
  • A client is was ordered an insulin drip to control elevated uncontrolled glucose levels.  The nurse knows that which is the only type of insulin that can be given intravenously?
  • Regular
  • NPH
  • Glargine
  • Lipro
600

Which over-the-counter drug could be dangerous if taken in conjunction with clopidogrel (PLAVIX)?

  • Pseudophedrine (SUDAFED)
  • Ibuprofen (ADVIL)
  • Calcium carbonate (MAALOX)
  • Famotadine (PEPCID)
700

What are the adverse drug reactions associated with Spironolactone?

Hyperkalemia

700
  • The home health nurse checks a patient’s medications and finds nitroglycerine tablets (NTG) in a clear, plastic, weekly pill box sitting on the window sill in the bathroom. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
  • “Until we get you a pill organizer that protects nitroglycerine pills from light, heat, and moisture, you need to keep the nitroglycerine tablets in the original container.”
  • “Be sure to keep the lids on the pill organizer closed to prevent moisture from getting inside and ruining the tablets.”
  • “Nitroglycerine tablets can be stored only in the original container or they will have increased potency.”
  • “Place the pill organizer in a plastic storage bag to protect the potency of the nitroglycerine tablets.
700
  • The nurse is assigned to an asthmatic patient who complains of trouble breathing. After aerosol administration of albuterol, the nurse expects to see which reflected in the patients vitals signs.
  • Decreased Temperature
  • Decreased Blood Pressure
  • Increased Respiratory rate
  • Increased Heart rate
700
  • The nurse will instruct a patient who is receiving a tetracycline antibiotic to take using which instructions?
  • It should be taken with milk.
  • It should be taken with 8 ounces of water.
  • It should be taken 30 minutes before iron is taken.
  • An antacid should also be taken to decrease GI discomfort.
700
  • A patient comes to the clinic for an annual health examination. The patient takes several herbal preparations, including 3000 mg of allium sativum (GARLIC) each day to lower cholesterol. Which medication may be affected by high doses of garlic?
  • Clopidogrel (PLAVIX)
  • Alprazolam (XANAX)
  • Docetaxel (TAXOTERE)
  • Dextromethorphan (ROBITUSSIN)
800

Which cardiac medications calms the heart and/or lowers the BP or HR?

Ace inhibitors, Beta blockers, Calcium Channel Blockers, Digoxin, Diuretics

800
  • The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old patient who has had abdominal surgery and is receiving morphine sulfate (MORPHINE) via a PCA pump for pain control. What observation by the nurse requires the most immediate intervention?
  • The patient arouses to voice but does not remain awake
  • The mother states that the patient has been scratching
  • The patient’s respiratory rate is 12 breaths per minute
  • The patient has vomited two times in the last hour
800
  • The nurse suspects a hypersensitivity reaction in a patient receiving IV carbenicillin. What should the nurse do first?
  • Notify the physician
  • Stay with the patient
  • Stop the infusion
  • Slow the infusion
800
  • A client has been admitted to the unit with a stage IV ulcer.  The wound culture results come back positive for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).  The medication that will be ordered by the physician is:
  • Vancomycin (Vancocin)
  • Gentamicin (Garamycin)
  • Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
  • Colistimethate (Coly-Mycin
800
  • The provider prescribes allopurinol (ZYLOPRIM) for a patient with primary gout. Which of the following are therapeutic actions of the drug?
  • Analgesia
  • Anti-inflammatory activity
  • Cytotoxicity
  • Enzyme inhibition
900

When should Digoxin be held?

Apical pulse rate for a full minute that is 60 beats or less

Potassium 3.5 or less 

N/V, dizziness and fatigue=Dig toxicity >2.0

900

A 78-year-old patient is prescribed cyclobenzaprine hydrochloride (FLEXERIL)for low back pain. The nurse is alert to which anticholinergic side effect?

  • Drowsiness
  • Urinary frequency
  • Headache
  • Diarrhea
900

Which sign would be of most concern if observed in the patient taking azithromycin (Zithromax) and warfarin (COUMADIN)?

  • Nose bleed
  • Vomiting
  • Abdominal tenderness
  • Vaginal discharge
900
  • Which drug class would be used as a first-line therapy for gastrointestinal reflux disease (GERD) that has not responded to customary medical treatment?
  • H₂ blockers
  • Antacids
  • Mucosal protectants
  • Proton pump inhibitors
900
  • Which explanation by the patient indicates an accurate understanding of the pharmacology of amlodipine (NORVASC)?
  • “The medicine stops calcium from going into the artery walls and  
  •   them to relax.”
  • “Norvasc helps lower my blood pressure by helping my kidneys get rid of excess water in my system.”
  • “My pills slow my heartbeat and make my heart pump better.”
  • “This medicine tells my brain to dilate my blood vessels and my pressure goes down.”
1000

What are therapeutic uses for Losartan?

Treats HTN & HF, prevents stroke, manages diabetic neuropathy, prevents migraine headaches.

1000

The nurse answers questions of the children of a patient with mild Alzheimer’s disease. Which statement by the daughter indicates understanding of the drug donezepil (ARICEPT)?

  • “We are so received to finally find a medicine that will restore dad’s    
  •    memory.”
  • “I’ll give him his medicine every morning with food or milk.”
  • “If the medicine is going to help dad, we should see changes in his behavior after several weeks of treatment.”
  • “Aricept repairs the brain damage caused by Alzheimer’s disease and helps restore cognitive function.”
1000

Which instructions are most important for the nurse when teaching a client with hypertension about clonidine (CATAPRES)?

  • Take the prescribed oral dose of medication at the same time every day; do not stop taking medication abruptly.
  • Take the prescribed oral dose every morning to prevent transient increases in blood sugar.
  • Concurrent use of CNS depressants may cause rapid elevations of the blood pressure.
  • Stop taking clonidine (Catapres) for at least 24hours prior to surgery; watch for hypotension.
1000

Which of the following is the analgesic of choice for burn pain?

Morphine sulfate

1000

A patient asks the nurse to explain why the doctor changed his arthritis medicine from prescription strength ibuprofen (Motrin) to celecoxib (Celebrex). Which statement by the nurse is the best response?

  • "You do not need to take the new prescription with food like you did  
  •   the ibuprofen."
  •  "The risk of heart problems is much higher with ibuprofen."
  • "The practitioner is concerned about your stomach pain and distress. 
  •   The new prescription may have fewer GI side effects."
  •   "You need fewer doses of the new prescription each day, so
  •     celecoxib (Celebrex) is easier to take."
1100

A patient calls the clinic at 4:30 pm to ask the nurse what to do about his missed dose of digoxin (LANOXIN). He reported that he forgot to take his 9:00 am dose today. What should the nurse tell the patient about the missed dose?

  • Take ½ of the missed dose now, and take the normal dose in the morning
  • Do not take the missed dose today. Wait until tomorrow and restart the normal dose.
  • Take the full missed dose of digoxin now, and continue with the daily morning dose tomorrow and thereafter.
  • Skip the scheduled dose today, and double the dose in the morning.
1100

The nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who asks for a prescription for his seasonal allergies. The primary provider orders fexofenadine (ALLEGRA). What is the main action of this medication?

  • Prevents histamine release
  • Increases histamine release
  • Blocks histamine at H1 receptor sites
  • Stimulates histamine at H1 receptor sites
1100

The nurse questions and examines a patient daily prior to fluoruracil (5-FU) treatment. Which assessment findings should the nurse communicate immediately to the primary provider?

  • Alopecia
  • Stomatitis
  • Nausea
  • Anorexia
1100
  • When teaching a client about the common adverse effects of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) the nurse should mention which possible effect?
  • Dizziness
  • Heartburn
  • Palpitations
  • Diarrhea
1100

A patient is taking co-trimoxazole (BACTRIM). Which of the following signs would be of greatest concern?

  • Vomiting X2
  • Watery diarrhea
  • Flulike symptoms
  • Anorexia
1200

The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of education related to dietary management of hypercholesterolemia for a patient initiating a trial on ezetimibe (ZETIA). Which menu selection by the patient indicates an understanding of a heart-healthy diet?

  • Grilled chicken, macaroni and cheese, and angel food cake with whipped cream.
  • Chicken fried steak, fresh asparagus with hollandaise sauce
  • Vegetable lasagna, garlic bread, and mozzarella sticks
  • Baked flounder, steamed broccoli, and fruit salad
1200

A mother of a child just diagnosed with a viral respiratory infection asks the nurse why her child cannot get a prescription for amoxicillin (AMOXIL). The mother indicates that her child’s best friend had the same respiratory symptoms and received amoxicillin (AMOXIL). What is the nurse’s best reply?

  • “The provider did not order amoxicillin for your child.”
  • “Amoxicillin is used to treat only bacterial infections.”
  • “The child’s best friend must have been much sicker than your child.”
  •  “Would you like to speak to the provider about your child again?”
1200

Which potential nursing diagnoses are high priorities for an ambulatory geriatric patient receiving furosemide (LASIX)? Select all that apply.

  • Risk for aspiration
  • Risk for electrolyte imbalance
  • Risk for falls
  • Risk for imbalanced fluid volume
  • Risk for infection
  • Risk for functional incontinence
1200
  • When teaching a client who will be discharged on warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which state statement by the nurse is correct regarding over-the-counter drug use?
  • "Choose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs as needed for pain relief."
  • "Aspirin products may result in increased anti-coagulant effect."
  • "Vitamin E therapy is recommended to improve the effect of the warfarin."
  • "Mineral oil is the laxative of choice while taking anti-coagulants."
1200

A patient is admitted to the ICU after a craniotomy. As the nurse administers a 4 mg dose of IV dexamethasone sodium phosphate, the parents ask questions about the medication. What is the most likely purpose for the patient receiving this drug?

  • Prevention of seizures
  • Treatment of respiratory distress
  • Management of cerebral edema
  • Immunosuppression
1300

What is the therapeutic range for INR?

INR for Heart valve replacements?

2-3

2.5-3.5

1300

Which drug is used to treat amebas in the intestines?

  • Hydroxychloroquine (PLAQUENIL)
  • Paromomycin (HUMATIN)
  • Mefloquine (LARIAM)
  • Rimantidine (FLUMADINE)
1300

Which assessment finding for a pregnant woman with preeclampsia alerts the nurse to possible toxic effects of magnesium sulfate?

  • 2+ deep tendon reflexes
  • Serum magnesium of 6 mEq/L
  • Urine output of 425 mL/4 hours
  • Respiratory rate of 10 bpm
1300

A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to a daily dose of lisinopril.  The nurse should plan to administer this medication:

  • During dialysis
  • Just before dialysis
  • On return from dialysis
  • The next morning after dialysis
1300

Which type of insulin has an onset of 1-2 hours?

  • Insulin glargine (Lantus)
  • Regular (Humulin R)
  • Insulin aspart (Novolog)
  • NPH (Novolin N)
1400

Patient is receiving a heparin gtt and bleeding is noted from the IV site, what is the nurse priority actions?

Stop the gtt and notify the MD, prepare the antidote and reassess the labs in 1 hour.

1400

Which vitamin deficiency is common in patients taking isoniazid (INH)?

  • Vitamin A
  • Vitamin B6
  • Vitamin C
  • Vitamin E
1400

A new mother who wants to breastfeed her baby asks the nurse if she should when she is taking antiretroviral drugs including abacavir (ZIAGEN). Which response by the nurse is correct?

  • Breastfeeding is allowed while taking this drug.
  • Pumping breast milk and feeding it to the infant in a bottle is allowed.
  • Breastfeeding is not an option while taking the drug.
  • Breastfeeding must be supplemented by bottle feeding.
1400
  • A client in status asthmaticus has not yet responded to epinephrine.  The nurse will expect which to be used next?
  • montelukast (Singulair)
  • cromolyn (Intal)
  • albuterol (Proventil)
  • theophylline (Elixophyllin)
1400

A patient is started on tamsulosin hydrochloride (Flomax). Which instruction by the nurse is the most critical at the start of drug therapy?

  • "Change positions slowly to reduce the risk of injury related to a sudden drop in blood pressure or fainting."
  • "Take the medication as directed after the same meal every day."
  • "Consult the HCP before taking other medicines or over-the-counter cough, cold, or allergy remedies."
  • "You may not see maximum improvement in symptoms for several
  •  weeks."
1500

T/F? Antibiotics can increase the risk for bleeding?

True

INR is increased and the antibiotics kills the intestinal bacteria therefore killing the bacteria that produces vitamin K.

1500

T/F? Warfarin is taking life long for patients with Afib or artificial/mechanical heart valve replacements?

True


1500
  • A patient is on intravenous Vincristine (Oncovin) for the treatment of acute leukemia. Which of the following medications should be prepared if extravasation occurs?
  • Ascorbic acid
  • Hyaluronidase
  • Sodium bicarb
  • Isotonic sodium thiosulfate
1500
  • The client with chronic renal failure asks why they are receiving amlodipine and furosemide.  Thee nurse explains that these medicates are used to treat:
  • Anemia
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Mineral and bone disorder
1500

The HCP added an antihyperglycemic agent, metformin hydrochloride extended-release tablets (GLUCOPHAGE XR), to the patient's management plan. How should he nurse instruct the patient to take this medication?

  • Daily, with the evening meal
  • Daily, 30 minutes before breakfast
  • Daily, 1-2 hours after breakfast
  • Daily, at bedtime
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