Procedure/Fracture
Bone/Implants
instrumentation /suturing/random
Positioning/ Dressings
Random
100

1. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine for which a stabilization procedure may be done is:

A. Scoliosis

B. Osteoporosis

C. Exostosis 

D. Herniated nucleus pulposa

a. scoliosis
100

2. Death of bone tissue due to the lack of circulation is:

A. arthritis

B. avascular necrosis

C. malunion

D. osteomyelitis

B. avascular necrosis

100

3. Equipment used to debride and clean infected wounds and joints is:

A. periosteal elevator

B. drill/reamer

C. suction irrigator

D. impactor

C. suction irrigator

100

6. The patients would be placed in the prone position for which of these procedures?

A. Excision of a Baker's Cyst

B. AK Amputation

C. Knee Arthroscopy 

Triple Arthrodesis of the Ankle

A. Excision of a Baker's Cyst

100

10. All of the following are guides to be followed when using polymethylmethacrylate (bone cement) except:

A. mix immediately before use

B. use a fume evacuator

C. mix with a gloved hand

D. supply to the surgeon in a syringe for injection into the medullary canal

C. mix with a gloved hand

200

8. The type of fracture that includes splintered or crushed bone is:

A. colles'

B. greenstick

C. compound

D. comminuted

D. comminuted

200

4. The most likely donor site for an autogenous bone graft is the:

A. Femur

B. Ischium

C. Scapula

D. Ilium

Bonus Pts: Cancellous or Cortical

D. Ilium

Bonus Pts: Both

200

5. In orthopedic surgery, absorbable suture would most likely be used on:

A. tendons

B. Periosteum

C. Ligaments

D. Bone

B. Periosteum

200

7. When assisting with the applications of a plaster cast, you would do all of the following except:

A. secure a bucket of hot water

B. prepare only one plaster bandage or strip at the time

C. gently squeeze excess water from the plaster bandage after bubbles have ceased to rise

D. clean plaster from the patient and equipment as soon as possible

A. secure a bucket of hot water

200

14. Excision of a knee cap for degenerative arthritis is called a/an:

A. Bristow Procedure

B. Patellectomy

C. Putti-Platt Procedure

D. Rotator Cuff correction

B. Patellectomy

300

9. The general term for joint reconstruction is:

A. osteotomy

B. arthrodesis

C. osteoarthritis

D. arthroplasty

D. arthroplasty

300

15. Bone retrieved from the patient for bone grafting is called ____ bone.

A. cadaveric

B. autogenic

C. xenogenic

D. allogenic

B. autogenic

300

11. Heavy suture is used to reattach a weakened anterior capsule to the glenoid fossa to correct recurrent dislocation of the of the shoulder in which procedure?

A. excision of a ganglion cyst

B. Keller Procedure

C. Bankhart Procedure

D. Kyphoplasty

C. Bankhart Procedure

300

18. When a tourniquet is inflated during surgery, the surgeon is notified at which recommended time intervals?

A. at the half hour, and every fifteen minutes thereafter 

B. at the half hour, and every half hour thereafter

C. at the hour, and every fifteen minutes thereafter

D. at the hour, and every half hour thereafter

C. at the hour, and every fifteen minutes thereafter

300

16. Placement of fixation pins through the skin into the bone proximal and distal to the fracture site, which are then connected to stabilizing bars, is called:

A. external fixation

B. skeletal fixation

C. internal fixation

D. compression fixation

A. external fixation

400

12. Removal of a fluid filled sac protruding between wrist joints for cosmesis or discomfort describes which procedures?

A. Excision of Ganglion

B. Patellectomy

C. McBride Procedure

D. Metacarpal Arthroplasty

A. Excision of Ganglion

400

19. Screws come in which type(s)?

A. cortical only

B. cortical and Kirschner

C. cancellous and cortical

D. trochanteric and Kirschner

C. cancellous and cortical

400

24. The sterile tourniquet cuff is applied:

A. before the skin prep beings

B. during draping but before other drapes are placed over the upper extremity

C. at the end of the draping procedure

D. never; tourniquet cuffs do not come sterile

B. during draping but before other drapes are placed over the upper extremity

400

22. When performing a skin prep for surgery on the tibia, the skin prep would extend: 

A. from the above the hip joint to the toes

B. from above the knee joint to the toes

C. from the incision site down to the toes

D. from the hip joint to the knee joint

B. from above the knee joint to the toes

400

17. The fixation device(s) most commonly used for intertrochanteric fractures of the femur include(s):

A. compression plates and screws

B. hinged replacement prosthesis

C. rods/nails

D. Kirschner wires

A. compression plates and screws

500

13. Use of a prosthesis to replace arthritic joints in the hand is referred to as a/an:

A. Triple Arthrodesis

B. Carpal Tunnel Release

C. Bankhart Procedure

D. Metacarpal Arthroplasty

D. Metacarpal Arthroplasty

500

21. The implant used on small bone fragments or as port of skeletal traction is called:

A. cancellous screw

B. steinmann pin

C. cortical screw

D. nail

B. steinmann pin

500

The x-ray vies usually obtained during orthopedic surgery include all of the following except:

A. sagittal

B. oblique

C. anterior/posterior

D. lateral

A. sagittal

500

23. The dressing applied at the end of an orthopedic procedure which gives compression to the wound is a/an: 

A. kerlix fluff

B. xeroform

C. ace or elastic bandage

D. fiberglass or plaster cast

C. ace or elastic bandage

500

20. Polymethylmethacrylate is commonly known as:

A. a material implants are made from

B. material used to coat implants when placing a noncemented prosthesis

C. a material soft tissue allografts are made of

D. material used to hold the prosthesis when placing a cemented prosthesis

D. material used to hold the prosthesis when placing a cemented prosthesis

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