Paper 1
Paper 2
Paper 3
Listening Knowledge
Reading Comprehension Knowledge
100

How many marks is full marks for paper 1

60

100

How many marks are there in exercise 2?

10

100

How long is the max time for a speaking test?

15 minutes

100

In practice test 1, Jo decided to become a radio presenter because...

a) she was excited about an experience her father had b)she believed that she had the right personality for it c)she loved a particular radio program

a) she was excited about an experience her father had

100

In Test 1, Exercise 1, of the Practice Tests book...

Where was Li Daniels working when she entered the cookery competition?

She was working in a bank

200

How much time should you look at using for each exercise.  

15 mins for reading and 30 minutes for writing.  

200

When should you fill out your answersheet?

at the end of the test when you are given time.  

200

How many assessed parts are there to the test?

3

200

Uros people are only able to eat ___ from time to time

a) dumplings

b) potatoes

c) eggs

b) potatoes


Qiuestion 25, Mid-Term Exam

200

What does the German name for the flying dinosaur mean?

Urvogel, which means 'the first bird'


PAL End semester exam

300

What are the steps you should use for a reading exercise as far as best practices?

1.  Read instructions and underline any important words

2.  Read questions and answers then underline any important words

3.  Guess answers and think about synonyms to answers 

4.  Read through article, underline when you find important information

5.  Answer the questions and confirm answers based on what you underlined

300

What are the steps you should use for a Listening exercise as far as best practices?

1.  Read instructions and underline any important words

2.  Read questions and answers then underline any important words

3.  Guess main topic based on context

4.  Guess answers and think about synonyms to answers

5.  Listen for the first time using a strategy

6.  Listen for the second time and confirm your answers.  

7.  At the end of the test transfer your answers to your answer sheet.

300

How long is the prep and short talk time?

1min and 3 mins

300

According to Rachel in Practice Test 2, the ideal sailing crew member would be someone who is....


a) able to deal with difficult situations calmly 

b) willing to do the necessary training with her

c) friendly and can see the funny side of things

a) able to deal with difficult situations calmly

300

Name the 4 countries that Harrison Green explored when he was trekking in the Himalayas

India, Nepal, Afghanistan, and Pakistan.

400

What should the register be for exercise 5?

informal to semi-informal

400

Which Exercise counts for the least amount of marks?

Multiple matching, (6 speakers) 6 marks

400

What are the 4 categories you are graded based on the rubric?

Grammar, Vocabulary, Development, Pronunciation

400

Isabelle Navarro works with people who have...

a) shown some ability to organize themselves already 

b) managed to achieve something locally 

c) a strong belief in their ability to do well

b)managed to achieve something locally

Practice Test 3, Practice Tests Book

400

What is a simple definition for claustrophobia?

A fear of closed spaces

500

What is different from the 2023 and 2024 Writing part of the Test?

1.  The word count changed from 200 to 160

2.  the summary writing was removed

3.  the number of example comments was increased from 3 to 4

4.  the scoring went from 8+8 to 6+9

5.  There is now an Essay text type for exercise 6

500

What are some good strategies for your first listening for an exercise?

Listen to eliminate answers

Listen and take notes/put down order you hear answers

Mark guess of possible answers

500

What topics could the speaking, reading, writing, or listening be about?

1.  Health, Fitness, Sport

2.  The Environment

3.  Entertainment

4.  Travel

5.  Family, School, Lifestyle

6.  Science and Nature

7.  Technology

8.  Shopping

500

  The ancient cultures linked to the history of chocolate lived mostly in an area that is now known as....

Mexico

500

explain the acronym in the name Hannah Herbst's invention named BEACON

  1. Bio-Engineered Advanced Conservation Of Nature
  2. Biodegradable Eco-Friendly Advanced Connectivity Network
  3. Bringing Electricity Access to Countries through Ocean Energy
  4. Bright Energy-efficient Autonomous Communication Node
  5. Beacon for Environmentally-friendly Advanced Connectivity Networking

3.  BEACON (Bringing Electricity Access to Countries through Ocean Energy)

M
e
n
u