MSMHC LAB WARS: ROUND ONE Jeopardy Template

CHEM

HEM

BLOOD BANK

COAG

100

Which of the following inferences may not be detected by automated HIL indices or may interfere with the estimation of HIL indices?

Green biliverdin

Brown methemalbumin

Orange beta-carotenes

Exogenous compounds such as dyes, drugs, and contrast media

All of these above

All of these

100

How long does XN CHECK QC have to sit at room temperature before we run the QC on the analyzers?

10 minutes

15 minutes

25 minutes

30 minutes

15 minutes

100

Unrefrigerated specimens older than ____ are not suitable for examination.

24 hours

8 hours

4 hours

2 hours

100

When the Auto Control is positive, and the DAT IgG and C3 are negative, what is your next step?

Cold Screen

100

What is the highest programmable dilution for a D-Dimer patient sample with a result greater than the 4.00µg/mL AMR?

1:4 dilution

1:5 dilution

1:8 dilution

1:15 dilution

1:5 dilution

200

You have an cTNI result of 45.0 ng/mL. That AMR and Assay Range is 0.017-40.00ng/mL. The CRR is 0.017-200.00 ng/mL. Your instrument flags as “ABOVE ASSAY RANGE”. What are your next steps in resulting the patient results?

Report the 45.0 ng/mL result.

Dilute the sample with enzyme diluent and rerun the sample. Report the new result as it falls within the CRR.

Dilute the sample with CTNI sample dilute and rerun sample. Report the new result as it falls within the CRR.

Call the nurse immediately with the critical value.

Dilute the sample with CTNI sample dilute and rerun sample. Report the new result as it falls within the CRR.

200

What does WNR refer to as it relates to XN3000 reagent?

White count, normochromic RBC, retic count

Whole blood, neutrophil count, retic count

White count, nucleated count, red cell count

White count, nucleated count, retic count

White count, nucleated count, red cell count

200

According to the SOP, what is the recommended amount for performing manual urinalysis?

2 ml
5 ml
10 ml
15 ml

10 ml

200

When the Eflexis ABSc is positive and the Panel is negative, what is the next step?

Tube LISS screen
Tube PeG Screen

200

According to the SOP, how often should QC be run for the STA-R Max? (Select all that apply.)

Every 8 hours

After weekly maintenance.

After loading a new test reagent.

All of the above.

All these above

300

When comparing and instrument to its peer group, which statistic provides the most useful information regarding its accuracy?

Mean

Standard Deviation

CVR

SDI

300

Brandon is running a manual body fluid. She takes out a Level One and Level Two of Streck Cell-Chex body fluid controls on 04/08/2018 and puts it back in the refrigerator. On May 3, 2018 Mayur wants to use the sample controls. Can he use the controls?

No, the QC is only good for 15 days after opening.

No the QC should be left at room temperature.

Yes, the QC is good for 30 as long as it is refrigerated.

Yes, the QC is good for 60 days as long as it is refrigerated.

Yes, the QC is good for 30 as long as it is refrigerated.

300

When running an Ictotest on a patient sample after a positive bilirubin, you observe the color pink on the test mat under the tablet. This means the Ictotest is positive.

True

False

300

What two situations cause the Eflexis green light to flash yellow?

Reagents low
Maintenance Due

300

The doctor ordered a ANTI-XA test at 0830 for a patient on heparin therapy. Natasha notices that she drew the sample at 0600. Can the ANTI-XA be added to the draw. Should it be added to the draw?

Yes. The sample is within the 4 hour window for PTT samples.

No. The sample should not be added on because the clinical outcome of the patient will be adversely affected due to inaccurate Anti-Xa result because of the collection time of the sample.

400

You are performing a 1/10 dilution on your sample. You have 35 microliters of sample. How much diluent do you need?
1. 300 microliters
2. 315 microliters
3. 320 microliters
4. 325 microliters

315 microliters

400

The interpretation of the IPF test is as follows:

↑PLT + ↓IPF = consumption/destruction issue with platelets

↓PLT + ↑IPF = production issue with platelets

True

False

400

Which of the following reducing sugars will react positively with AIMTEST?

Lactose
Fructose
Galactose
Pentose
All of the above

All of these above

400

What two reasons are hemolyzed samples unacceptable in the Blood Bank?

Hemolysis is considered a positive reaction
If a transfusion reaction occurs, we cannot compare

400

Heparin inhibits the clotting of blood by neutralizing the effect of:

Calcium ions

Thrombin

Platelets

Factor VIII

Factor X

Thrombin

500

What is the CRR?
1. Clinically Reportable Range
2. Maximum range that the instrument reports, including dilutions
3. Range that the instrument reports without any dilutions
4. Both A and B

BOTH A and B

500

Juliana gets all [*] on the differential. She notices that a diff was done within 72 hours and the current automated results agree with the previous differential. What should be here next step?
1. The differentials agree and no diff is needed.
2. Per policy the differential was done with in the last 72 hours. So a differential is not needed.
3. The flag indicates low reliability and the differential should be performed.
4. The flag indicates the results are out of range and the differential should be performed.

The flag indicates low reliability and the differential should be performed.

500

Identify this analyte when performing the Chemistry in Urinalysis.:

When fat is broken down for energy, the body makes these substances and are passed in the urine. They are common in the urine of type 1 diabetes patients.

Ketones

500

What is the Diluent on the Eflexis used for?

Dilute RBCs

500

What is the current ISI on the Coagulation analyzer?

1.24

1.34

1.31

1.22

1.34