My Pronouns are "He/Heme/Hemes"
If You Liked It Then You Should’ve Put an ECHO on It
Phase III Around and Find Out
Genetics Gone Wild
Tech Bros in the Hood
100

q21-day R-CHOP carries this level of febrile neutropenia risk, where CSF is only used if the patient has additional risk factors.
 

What is intermediate (10–20%)?

100

This formula should generally be avoided when calculating QTc as it tends to overestimate the true value, especially at higher heart rates.

What is Bazett? or What is the Bazett formula" 

[Fredericia or Framingham are preferred. See calculator in UpToDate]

100

PFS and OS was improved in the DESTINY-Breast04 trial for HER2-low metastatic breast cancer, which compared physicians choice of treatment to this ADC.  

What is Enhertu (trastuzumab deruxtecan or T-DXd)?

[do not confuse with KATHERINE trial for adjuvant Kadcyla]


100

This oral cell-cycle–targeting drug class blocks progression from G1 to S Phase and is combined with endocrine therapy for HR-positive, HER2-negative breast cancer, regardless of BRCA status.
 

What are CDK4/6 inhibitors?

[PARPi used for BRCA mutation, damage DNA]

100

The visible sign that a protein drug has likely been mishandled during mixing.

What is foaming?

(monoclonal antibodies or other protein based drugs such as alpha1 proteinase inhibitor, (peg)filgrastim, erythro/darbepoietin, interferons, vaccines, dornASE alfa)

200

Patients who receive outpatient step up doses for BiTE therapies and experience fever/hypotension should report to the ED if no improvement in symptoms after 1-2 hours of taking these TWO medications at home.

What are APAP and dexamethasone?


200

Re-load Perjeta (PERTuzumab) if the time between 2 sequential infusions is greater than this many weeks.

What is six (weeks)?


200

The TWO trial name prefixes you’d expect to see when reviewing studies of pembrolizumab and nivolumab.
 

What are KEYNOTE and CHECKMATE?

200

This pharmacogenomic test identifies variants in the enzyme responsible for first-pass catabolism of over 80% of 5-FU and capecitabine, helping prevent fatal fluoropyrimidine toxicity.
 

What is DPYD testing?

[DPYD=gene, DPD=enzyme, DPD deficiency=reduced enzymatic activity]

200

Per the HHC Antineoplastic and Biologic IV Grid, this is the diluent utilized for compounding dexrazoxane and Ixempra (ixabepilone).



What is LR? (Lactated Ringer's)

[Contains sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, and lactate]

300

This multi day chemo treatment for aggressive lymphoma should include a bowel regimen for constipation, hydration to dilute acrolein, a PPI/H2 for SUP, and very careful calculations between cycles. 

What is DA-(R)-EPOCH?

dose-adjusted etoposide, prednisone, Oncovin (vincristine), Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide), and hydroxydaunorubicin (doxorubicin).

"a·kruh·leen "

300

This CDK4/6 inhibitor used in HR-positive breast cancer is 'worst in the class' for QTc prolongation and mandates electrolyte monitoring in addition to an ECG at baseline on on Day 14.

What is Kisqali (ribociclib)?

300

The frontline DLBCL trial, STARGLO, evaluated Columvi (glofitamab) plus a backbone of GemOx, with obinutuzumab as a 'pre-treatment' to do this. 

What is reduce risk of CRS or deplete B cells?

300

This estrogen receptor gene is commonly mutated after prolonged aromatase inhibitor exposure and is used to guide the use of SERDs such as elacestrant and camizestrant for patients with breast cancer. 

What is ESR1?

(estrogen receptor alpha protein)

From recent CE: "Precision Oncology"


300

This is the required airflow classification inside the primary engineering control (PEC).
 

What is ISO (Class) 5?

400

In addition to anti-thymocyte globulin (equine) a.k.a Atgam, these two medications make up the rest of the regimen known as triple immunosuppressive therapy (IST) for aplastic anemia (AA).

What is Promacta (eltrombopag) and CSA (cyclosporine)?


[POM Promacta, CSA on formulary (hospital supply)]

400

Metastatic breast cancer patients whose cardiac function is stable after a year can go from a q3mo to a q6mo ECHO. Patients who are unstable should be referred for this.

What is further clinical assessment or a Cardio-Oncology consult?


400

The MATTERHORN trial for gastric and GEJ cancer established efficacy for perioperative FLOT plus this ICI.

What is Imfinzi (durvalumab)?

Per NCCN, FLOT is intermediate FN risk. CSF only with risk factors.

400

DAILY DOUBLE!!

The type of error when a tiny underpowered oncology trial misses a real OS benefit, so the drug is abandoned too early. 

What is a Type 2 error?

What is a false negative?

400

Per the Facilities and Engineering SOP, this is a cleanroom's target humidity range (%)

What is less than 60%?



500

In DA-R-EPOCH, these are TWO of the cytotoxics that are typically dose adjusted, but are NOT intended to be reduced below Dose Level 1.

What are doxorubicin and etoposide?

500

A patient on SQ Opdivo Qvantig presenting with chest discomfort, elevated troponin, and heart block due to T-cell–mediated inflammation is likely experiencing this specific toxicity.

What is immune-mediated myocarditis?

500

RUBY, the phase III endometrial cancer trial that established frontline immunotherapy for dMMR/MSI-H disease, utilized carboplatin and paclitaxel along with this PD-1 inhibitor.

What is Jemperli (dostarlimab)?

500

This CD30-targeted antibody–drug conjugate is FDA-approved for relapsed CD30-positive mycosis fungoides, a subtype of CTCL.



What is Adectris (brentuximab vedotin)?

500

For patients with mesothelioma or nonsquamous non-small cell lung cancer, this is the volume AND diluent required to reconstitute a 100mg vial of Alimta (pemetrexed).

What is 4.2 mLs of NS?

M
e
n
u