Saftey/Falls
Fluid & Electrolytes
Peri-op/pain management
Pharmacology
Misc
100

 A client with sudden confusion is found in bed with a temperature of 103.2°F (39.6°C), diaphoresis, and no identification. Which action should the nurse take first?

Multiple-Choice:

(A) Initiate safety measures and obtain a focused assessment of vital signs and neurologic status

(B) Ask family members for baseline memory status

(C) Offer oral fluids and encourage rest

(D) Complete a full mental status examination before any other action

Correct Answer: (A) Initiate safety measures and obtain a focused assessment of vital signs and neurologic status

Rationale: Safety comes first because the client is confused and at high risk for harm, and the fever suggests an urgent medical problem. The nurse should immediately ensure safety and assess vital signs and neurologic status to identify possible delirium or another acute cause. Family history is helpful but not the first action. Oral fluids may be appropriate later, but the priority is immediate assessment and safety. A full mental status examination is important, but not before stabilizing safety concerns and obtaining urgent data.

100

The nurse is caring for a client with fluid volume deficit from gastroenteritis. Which data should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Multiple-Choice:

(A) Heart rate 128/min with a weak radial pulse

(B) Reports mild thirst after walking

(C) Urine output 40 mL over the past hour

(D) Dry lips and requesting ice chips

Correct Answer: (A) Heart rate 128/min with a weak radial pulse

Rationale: Marked tachycardia with a weak pulse suggests worsening volume depletion and possible hemodynamic compromise, requiring immediate reporting. Mild thirst after activity is expected and less urgent. Urine output of 40 mL/hour is generally acceptable in many adults. Dry lips and a request for ice chips are expected findings and do not require immediate escalation.

100

The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient 24 hours after abdominal surgery. Which findings may indicate the patient is developing a postoperative complication? Select all that apply.

A. Temperature 101.8°F (38.8°C)
B. Productive cough with crackles
C. Oxygen saturation 88%
D. Hypoactive bowel sounds immediately after surgery
E. Sudden decrease in hemoglobin level
F. Calf pain and unilateral swelling

Correct Answers: A, B, C, E, F

Rationales

  • A Correct: Fever may indicate infection such as pneumonia or surgical site infection.
  • B Correct: Productive cough and crackles suggest postoperative pneumonia.
  • C Correct: Low oxygen saturation may indicate respiratory complications such as atelectasis or pulmonary embolism.
  • D Incorrect: Hypoactive bowel sounds are expected temporarily after surgery due to anesthesia and opioids.
  • E Correct: A sudden hemoglobin drop may indicate postoperative bleeding or hemorrhage.
  • F Correct: Calf pain and unilateral swelling suggest deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
100


The nurse is caring for a patient receiving IV potassium chloride for hypokalemia. Which finding requires the nurse’s immediate intervention?

A. Potassium infusion running on an infusion pump
B. Patient reports mild burning at IV site
C. IV potassium being administered by IV push
D. Cardiac monitor in place during infusion


Correct Answer: C — IV potassium being administered by IV push

Rationales

  • A Incorrect: Potassium should be administered using an infusion pump for safety and accurate control.
  • B Incorrect: Mild burning can occur with potassium infusions and should be monitored, but it is not the priority emergency.
  • C Correct: IV potassium must NEVER be given by IV push because it can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest.
    Potassium chloride
  • D Incorrect: Continuous cardiac monitoring is appropriate during IV potassium administration.
100

The nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes who suddenly becomes shaky, sweaty, and confused. The patient’s blood glucose is 58 mg/dL.

What should the nurse do first?

A. Administer insulin
B. Give orange juice
C. Call the healthcare provider
D. Reassess blood glucose in 1 hour

Correct Answer: B — Give orange juice

Rationales

  • A Incorrect: Insulin would worsen hypoglycemia.
  • B Correct: A conscious patient with hypoglycemia should receive a fast-acting carbohydrate immediately.
  • C Incorrect: Treatment comes before notification.
  • D Incorrect: The glucose must be treated immediately, not delayed.
200

A patient with sundowning becomes more confused at night. Which intervention is most appropriate?

A. Limit supervision
B. Increase stimulation
C. Provide more supervision and reorientation
D. Keep patient isolated


  • Correct Answer: C
  • A Incorrect: Reduced supervision increases risk for injury and wandering.
  • B Incorrect: Excess stimulation can worsen sundowning symptoms.
  • C Correct: Reorientation and closer supervision improve safety and reduce confusion.
  • D Incorrect: Isolation may increase anxiety and confusion.
200

Question 1: A client with heart failure has gained 2.4 kg in 2 days, has crackles at the lung bases, and has jugular vein distention. Which action should the nurse take first?

Multiple-Choice:

(A) Elevate the legs and encourage ambulation

(B) Notify the provider and prepare to administer prescribed diuretics

(C) Encourage increased oral fluids to support circulation

(D) Place the client in Trendelenburg position

Correct Answer: (B) Notify the provider and prepare to administer prescribed diuretics

Rationale: The findings suggest fluid volume excess with pulmonary congestion. The nurse should escalate the change in status and anticipate diuretic therapy to reduce volume overload. Elevating the legs may worsen venous return and does not treat the cause. Increasing fluids would worsen overload. Trendelenburg positioning is inappropriate and can impair breathing.

200

The nurse is assessing a patient for risk factors that increase the likelihood of postoperative complications. Which findings increase the patient’s surgical risk? Select all that apply.

A. Obesity
B. Smoking history
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Age 22 years old
E. Hypertension
F. Adequate nutrition

Rationales

  • A Correct: Obesity increases risk for respiratory complications, poor wound healing, and DVT.
  • B Correct: Smoking impairs oxygenation and wound healing.
  • C Correct: Diabetes increases infection risk and delays healing.
  • D Incorrect: Young adulthood alone is not a major surgical risk factor.
  • E Correct: Hypertension increases cardiovascular complication risk.
  • F Incorrect: Good nutrition supports healing and lowers risk.
200

The nurse is preparing morning medications for a patient with difficulty swallowing. One medication is prescribed as extended-release oxycodone (ER).

Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. Crush the medication and mix it with applesauce
B. Split the tablet in half before administration
C. Administer the medication whole as prescribed
D. Dissolve the tablet in water before giving

  • A Incorrect: Crushing an extended-release medication destroys the time-release mechanism and may cause overdose or toxicity.
  • B Incorrect: Splitting extended-release tablets can alter medication absorption and release.
  • C Correct: Extended-release medications must generally be administered whole to maintain safe, controlled drug delivery.
    Extended-release oxycodone
  • D Incorrect: Dissolving the medication changes how the drug is absorbed and may release the entire dose at once.
200

Cultural Assessment Question

A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a newly hospitalized patient from a different cultural background. The nurse wants to provide culturally competent care.

Which nursing actions are appropriate? (Select all that apply)

A. Ask the patient about cultural beliefs that may affect health care decisions
B. Assume the patient follows common practices of their ethnic group
C. Ask if the patient has any dietary or religious restrictions
D. Avoid discussing culture to prevent offending the patient
E. Use open-ended questions to explore health beliefs and practices
F. Document cultural preferences in the care plan

orrect Answers: A, C, E, F

✔ A. Ask the patient about cultural beliefs that may affect health care decisions

Rationale (Correct):

  • Directly assesses individual values and beliefs.
  • Cultural care must be patient-specific, not generalized.

Why others are wrong:

  • None; this is appropriate.

❌ B. Assume the patient follows common practices of their ethnic group

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • This is stereotyping.
  • NGN expects individualized assessment, not assumptions.

✔ C. Ask if the patient has any dietary or religious restrictions

Rationale (Correct):

  • Many cultures have food restrictions (e.g., halal, kosher).
  • Religious practices may affect treatment (e.g., fasting, blood products).

❌ D. Avoid discussing culture to prevent offending the patient

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • Avoidance leads to unsafe care and misunderstanding.
  • Cultural assessment is a required part of holistic nursing care.

✔ E. Use open-ended questions to explore health beliefs and practices

Rationale (Correct):

  • Encourages patient to share beliefs in their own words.
  • Example: “What does health mean to you?”

✔ F. Document cultural preferences in the care plan

Rationale (Correct):

  • Ensures continuity of culturally competent care across shifts.
  • Helps all providers respect patient preferences.
300

The nurse is caring for four patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which task is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?


Which principle should the nurse follow when delegating to a UAP?

A. Delegate unstable patients to reduce workload
B. Delegate assessment and teaching tasks
C. Delegate routine, stable, predictable tasks
D. Delegate nursing judgment tasks when busy

Correct Answer: C

  • A Incorrect: Unstable patients require RN care.
  • B Incorrect: Assessment and teaching cannot be delegated.
  • C Correct: UAPs should perform routine, predictable tasks.
  • D Incorrect: Nursing judgment cannot be delegated.



300

client with hypernatremia is receiving hypotonic IV fluids. Which finding requires immediate follow-up?

Multiple-Choice:

(A) New onset of confusion and seizures

(B) Serum sodium decreased from 156 to 154 mEq/L

(C) Urine output of 40 mL/hr

(D) Thirst has decreased

Correct Answer: (A) New onset of confusion and seizures

Rationale: Rapid lowering of serum sodium can cause cerebral edema, which may present with confusion, seizures, and neurologic decline. A small sodium decrease is expected with treatment. Urine output of 40 mL/hr is acceptable. Decreased thirst can indicate improvement.

300

The nurse suspects a patient is experiencing fluid volume excess after surgery. Which findings support this assessment? Select all that apply.

A. Crackles in lungs
B. Peripheral edema
C. Shortness of breath
D. Flat neck veins
E. Elevated blood pressure
F. Dry mucous membranes


Correct Answers: A, B, C, E

Rationales

  • A Correct: Crackles indicate fluid accumulation in lungs.
  • B Correct: Edema is a classic sign of fluid overload.
  • C Correct: Excess fluid may impair breathing.
  • D Incorrect: Fluid overload usually causes distended neck veins.
  • E Correct: Increased fluid volume can raise blood pressure.
  • F Incorrect: Dry mucous membranes suggest dehydration, not excess fluid.





300

A nurse is assessing an 86-year-old patient who is admitted with confusion and weakness. The patient reports taking “many medications at home,” but cannot recall all of them. The patient also states, “I drink a glass of wine every night.”

Which nursing actions are appropriate? (Select all that apply)

A. Ask the patient to bring in all home medications or a medication list
B. Assess the patient’s alcohol use and frequency
C. Assume confusion is related only to aging and document as expected
D. Perform a complete medication reconciliation with pharmacy records if available
E. Ask about over-the-counter (OTC) medications and herbal supplements
F. Immediately discontinue all home medications without provider order

Correct Answers: A, B, D, E

✔ A. Ask the patient to bring in all home medications or a medication list

Rationale (Correct):

  • Essential for medication reconciliation.
  • Helps identify duplicates, interactions, and high-risk drugs.

✔ B. Assess the patient’s alcohol use and frequency

Rationale (Correct):

  • Alcohol can interact with many medications (sedatives, opioids, antihypertensives).
  • Increases risk of toxicity, falls, and CNS depression.

❌ C. Assume confusion is related only to aging and document as expected

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • Confusion is not a normal part of aging.
  • Could indicate drug toxicity, infection, or metabolic imbalance.

✔ D. Perform a complete medication reconciliation with pharmacy records if available

Rationale (Correct):

  • Gold standard for preventing medication errors.
  • Identifies discrepancies between prescribed and actual use.

✔ E. Ask about over-the-counter (OTC) medications and herbal supplements

Rationale (Correct):

  • OTC and herbal products can cause serious interactions (e.g., St. John’s wort, NSAIDs).
  • Often overlooked source of toxicity.

❌ F. Immediately discontinue all home medications without provider order

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • Unsafe and outside nursing scope.
  • Abrupt stopping may cause withdrawal or worsening condition.
300

A nurse is caring for a 90-year-old patient admitted from home. The patient has unexplained weight loss, appears dehydrated, and has a caregiver who repeatedly answers questions for the patient. The patient avoids eye contact and becomes quiet when the caregiver enters the room.

Which nursing actions are appropriate? (Select all that apply)

A. Separate the patient from the caregiver to complete part of the assessment
B. Ask the caregiver to remain in the room for all assessments to reduce anxiety
C. Assess for signs of neglect such as poor hygiene, dehydration, and malnutrition
D. Document objective findings using exact descriptions
E. Conclude that abuse is occurring and confront the caregiver
F. Report suspected abuse according to facility and legal policy

Correct Answers: A, C, D, F

✔ A. Separate the patient from the caregiver to complete part of the assessment

Rationale (Correct):

  • Allows the patient to speak freely without pressure or fear.
  • Essential for identifying possible abuse or neglect.

❌ B. Ask the caregiver to remain in the room for all assessments to reduce anxiety

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • Caregiver presence may limit honest reporting.
  • In suspected abuse, privacy is required.

✔ C. Assess for signs of neglect such as poor hygiene, dehydration, and malnutrition

Rationale (Correct):

  • These are classic indicators of elder neglect.
  • Supports clinical judgment and further investigation.

✔ D. Document objective findings using exact descriptions

Rationale (Correct):

  • Legal documentation must be factual and precise.
  • Example: “dry mucous membranes” instead of “dehydrated-looking.”

❌ E. Conclude that abuse is occurring and confront the caregiver

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • Nurses do not diagnose or accuse.
  • Confrontation may increase risk to patient safety.

✔ F. Report suspected abuse according to facility and legal policy

Rationale (Correct):

  • Elder abuse is mandatory reporting.
  • Must notify provider and follow institutional reporting chain.
400


Which interventions should the nurse include in the care plan to prevent falls? (Select all that apply)

A. Place bed in high position for transfers
B. Keep call light within reach
C. Use bed alarm if needed
D. Provide frequent reorientation
E. Encourage independent ambulation without assistance
F. Keep environment clutter-free

Correct Answers: B, C, D, F

400

The nurse is reviewing a patient’s laboratory results. Which findings are abnormal and require further assessment? Select all that apply.

A. Albumin 2.8 g/dL
B. BUN 12 mg/dL
C. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
D. Sodium 140 mEq/L
E. Specific gravity 1.035
F. Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL

Correct Answers: A, C, E

Rationales

  • A Correct (Albumin 2.8 g/dL): Low albumin indicates malnutrition, liver disease, or fluid imbalance. Normal is ~3.5–5.0 g/dL.
  • B Incorrect (BUN 12 mg/dL): This is within normal range (about 7–20 mg/dL), so it is not concerning.
  • C Correct (Potassium 5.8 mEq/L): Elevated potassium (hyperkalemia) can cause dangerous dysrhythmias and requires immediate follow-up.
    Hyperkalemia
  • D Incorrect (Sodium 140 mEq/L): Normal sodium range is approximately 135–145 mEq/L.
  • E Correct (Specific gravity 1.035): Elevated specific gravity suggests dehydration or concentrated urine.
  • F Incorrect (Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL): This is within normal limits and indicates normal kidney function.
400

A client with breakthrough cancer pain is already receiving around-the-clock analgesia. Which order would the nurse expect?

Multiple-Choice:

(A) An immediate-release opioid for episodic pain

(B) A longer-acting opioid only

(C) A diuretic to reduce inflammation

(D) A PRN antacid after each meal

Correct Answer: (A) An immediate-release opioid for episodic pain

Rationale: Breakthrough pain is typically treated with an immediate-release opioid in addition to the baseline around-the-clock regimen. A longer-acting opioid alone is not appropriate for rapid relief of transient pain. Diuretics and antacids do not treat breakthrough cancer pain.

400

nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient newly prescribed Vasotec (enalapril) for hypertension.

Which statements by the patient indicate correct understanding? (Select all that apply)

A. “I should change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.”
B. “I can stop taking this medication once my blood pressure is normal.”
C. “I should monitor for a persistent dry cough.”
D. “I may need periodic blood tests to check kidney function and potassium.”
E. “I should increase potassium-rich foods like bananas without restrictions.”
F. “I will check my blood pressure regularly while taking this medication.”

Correct Answers: A, C, D, F

✔ A. “I should change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.”

Rationale (Correct):

  • Vasotec (ACE inhibitor) can cause orthostatic hypotension.
  • Slow position changes help prevent falls and dizziness.

❌ B. “I can stop taking this medication once my blood pressure is normal.”

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • Antihypertensives are long-term therapy.
  • Stopping suddenly can cause rebound hypertension.

✔ C. “I should monitor for a persistent dry cough.”

Rationale (Correct):

  • ACE inhibitors commonly cause a dry, persistent cough due to bradykinin buildup.
  • If severe, provider may switch medication.

✔ D. “I may need periodic blood tests to check kidney function and potassium.”

Rationale (Correct):

  • Vasotec can cause hyperkalemia and decreased renal function.
  • Monitoring BUN, creatinine, and potassium is essential.

❌ E. “I should increase potassium-rich foods like bananas without restrictions.”

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • ACE inhibitors increase potassium levels.
  • Excess potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia and dysrhythmias.

✔ F. “I will check my blood pressure regularly while taking this medication.”

Rationale (Correct):

  • Home BP monitoring helps evaluate medication effectiveness.
  • Ensures early detection of hypotension or uncontrolled HTN.
400

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection. The nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene and provide patient care.

Which actions are appropriate? (Select all that apply)

A. Perform hand hygiene using soap and water after patient care
B. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer after exiting the room
C. Wear gloves when providing direct patient care
D. Use contact precautions for the patient
E. Disinfect room surfaces with standard cleaning only (no bleach needed)
F. Teach staff that C. diff spores are resistant to alcohol-based sanitizers

Correct Answers: A, C, D, F

✔ A. Perform hand hygiene using soap and water after patient care

Rationale (Correct):

  • C. diff spores are not killed by alcohol-based sanitizer.
  • Mechanical removal with soap and water is required.

❌ B. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer after exiting the room

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • Alcohol-based sanitizer is NOT effective against C. diff spores.
  • Must use soap and water instead.

✔ C. Wear gloves when providing direct patient care

Rationale (Correct):

  • C. diff is spread via contact transmission.
  • Gloves prevent contamination of hands and surfaces.

✔ D. Use contact precautions for the patient

Rationale (Correct):

  • Includes gown and gloves.
  • Prevents spread of spores to other patients and surfaces.

❌ E. Disinfect room surfaces with standard cleaning only (no bleach needed)

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • C. diff spores require sporicidal agents (bleach-based disinfectants).
  • Standard cleaning is insufficient.

✔ F. Teach staff that C. diff spores are resistant to alcohol-based sanitizers

Rationale (Correct):

  • Key infection control teaching point.
  • Spores survive alcohol, requiring soap/water and bleach cleaning.
500

A nurse is assessing an 82-year-old patient who was admitted with new-onset confusion. The provider orders a Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE).

Which findings are included in the MMSE? (Select all that apply)

A. Asking the patient to repeat three unrelated words immediately and after a delay
B. Checking pupil response to light
C. Having the patient identify the current date and location
D. Asking the patient to spell a word backward
E. Testing muscle strength in upper and lower extremities
F. Asking the patient to name common objects (e.g., pen, watch)

Correct Answers: A, C, D, F

✔ A. Asking the patient to repeat three unrelated words immediately and after a delay

Rationale (Correct):

  • Tests short-term memory and recall, a key MMSE domain.
  • Evaluates ability to encode and retrieve information.

❌ B. Checking pupil response to light

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • This is a cranial nerve/neurological physical assessment, not cognitive testing.
  • MMSE does not evaluate reflexes or pupil response.

✔ C. Having the patient identify the current date and location

Rationale (Correct):

  • Assesses orientation to time and place, core MMSE component.
  • Helps detect delirium or cognitive decline.

✔ D. Asking the patient to spell a word backward

Rationale (Correct):

  • Tests attention and concentration.
  • Alternative to serial 7s in MMSE.

❌ E. Testing muscle strength in upper and lower extremities

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • This evaluates motor function, not cognition.
  • Not part of MMSE screening.

✔ F. Asking the patient to name common objects (e.g., pen, watch)

Rationale (Correct):

  • Tests language and object recognition.
  • Helps assess expressive language ability.
500

he nurse is caring for a hospitalized patient with a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. The patient is receiving furosemide for heart failure.

Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as the priority concern?

A. Blood pressure 148/86 mmHg
B. Muscle weakness and leg cramps
C. Apical heart rate irregular at 48 bpm
D. Urine output 45 mL/hr

Correct Answer: C — Apical heart rate irregular at 48 bpm

Rationales

  • A Incorrect: Elevated blood pressure is not the most immediate life-threatening concern in hypokalemia.
  • B Incorrect: Muscle weakness and cramps are expected symptoms of hypokalemia, but not the most urgent.
  • C Correct: Hypokalemia can cause dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias, including bradycardia and irregular rhythms. This indicates impaired cardiac conduction and requires immediate intervention.
    Hypokalemia
  • D Incorrect: Urine output of 45 mL/hr is within acceptable range and is not priority.

NGN Clinical Judgment Breakdown

Recognize Cues

  • Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
  • Diuretic use (furosemide)
  • Muscle weakness, potential cardiac changes

Analyze Cues

Hypokalemia increases risk for life-threatening dysrhythmias due to altered cardiac conduction.

Prioritize Hypothesis

Cardiac instability related to low potassium.

Take Action

Monitor ECG, anticipate potassium replacement, notify provider for abnormal rhythm.

Evaluate Outcomes

Stable heart rhythm, potassium returns to normal range, improved neuromuscular function.

500

The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient receiving IV morphine for pain management. Thirty minutes after administration, the nurse notes the following assessment findings:

  • Respiratory rate: 6/min
  • Oxygen saturation: 84%
  • Difficult to arouse
  • Pinpoint pupils

Which action should the nurse take first?

A. Administer the prescribed PRN pain medication
B. Place the patient in high-Fowler’s position only
C. Administer naloxone as prescribed
D. Encourage the patient to cough and deep breathe

Correct Answer: C — Administer naloxone as prescribed

Rationales

  • A Incorrect: Additional opioid medication would worsen respiratory depression.
  • B Incorrect: Positioning may help breathing slightly, but it does not reverse opioid overdose.
  • C Correct: Naloxone rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression and is the priority intervention.
    Naloxone
  • D Incorrect: The patient is too sedated to effectively participate in coughing and deep breathing exercises.
500

A nurse is teaching a patient who is receiving IV vancomycin for a severe infection. The provider has ordered a vancomycin trough level.

Which statements by the patient indicate correct understanding? (Select all that apply)

A. “The blood sample will be drawn right before my next dose.”
B. “This test checks if the medication level is too high and could be toxic.”
C. “I should take my vancomycin dose before the blood test is drawn.”
D. “The goal is to make sure the drug is still at an effective level in my body.”
E. “This test is used to check my blood sugar levels.”
F. “If the level is too high, I may be at risk for kidney damage.”

Correct Answers: A, B, D, F

✔ A. “The blood sample will be drawn right before my next dose.”

Rationale (Correct):

  • A trough level measures the lowest concentration of the drug in the bloodstream.
  • It is drawn just before the next dose.

✔ B. “This test checks if the medication level is too high and could be toxic.”

Rationale (Correct):

  • Vancomycin has a narrow therapeutic range.
  • High levels can cause toxicity, especially kidney damage and ototoxicity.

❌ C. “I should take my vancomycin dose before the blood test is drawn.”

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • This would give an inaccurate (false high) trough level.
  • The dose is given AFTER the blood sample is drawn.

✔ D. “The goal is to make sure the drug is still at an effective level in my body.”

Rationale (Correct):

  • Ensures the drug stays within the therapeutic range:
    • Effective enough to kill bacteria
    • Not toxic

❌ E. “This test is used to check my blood sugar levels.”

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • Vancomycin trough has no relation to glucose testing.
  • It measures antibiotic concentration in blood.

✔ F. “If the level is too high, I may be at risk for kidney damage.”

Rationale (Correct):

  • Vancomycin toxicity can cause nephrotoxicity (kidney injury).
  • Also may cause hearing damage (ototoxicity).
500

A nurse is providing preventive care for a 78-year-old patient during a routine visit.

Which interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

A. Recommend bone density screening
B. Encourage annual influenza vaccination
C. Advise limiting all physical activity to prevent injury
D. Assess fall risk and home safety hazards
E. Encourage increased calcium and vitamin D intake
F. Discourage vision and hearing evaluations unless symptoms occur

Correct Answers: A, B, D, E

✔ A. Recommend bone density screening

Rationale (Correct):

  • Older adults, especially postmenopausal women and elderly men, are at risk for osteoporosis.
  • Screening helps prevent fractures.

✔ B. Encourage annual influenza vaccination

Rationale (Correct):

  • Older adults are at higher risk for complications from flu.
  • Vaccination is a key primary prevention strategy.

❌ C. Advise limiting all physical activity to prevent injury

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • Physical activity is protective, not harmful.
  • Inactivity increases fall risk, weakness, and bone loss.

✔ D. Assess fall risk and home safety hazards

Rationale (Correct):

  • Falls are a leading cause of injury in older adults.
  • Assessment includes rugs, lighting, footwear, mobility aids.

✔ E. Encourage increased calcium and vitamin D intake

Rationale (Correct):

  • Supports bone health and reduces osteoporosis risk.
  • Helps prevent fractures and bone loss.

❌ F. Discourage vision and hearing evaluations unless symptoms occur

Rationale (Incorrect):

  • Routine screening is important because sensory decline can be gradual.
  • Vision/hearing issues increase fall and isolation risk.
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