Upper Respiratory
Lower Respiratory
Obstructive Respiratory
ARF/ARDS
Dysrhythmias
Peripheral Vascular Disorders
Urinary/Renal Disorders
Heart Failure
CAD/ACS
Hypertension
Valvular Diseases
Shock
AKI/CKD
100

Pt with History of Epstein-Barr virus, egg allergy or Guillian-Barre virus should NOT get this vaccine

influenza

100

A parent comes in and asks how long their child’s whooping cough contagious?

Day 5 of antibiotic therapy

100

While rounding on a patient the nurse notes a SP02 level of 82% while laying supine. What action should the nurse take first?

Raise the HOB to 30-45 degrees (semi-fowlers)

100

A patient with a diagnosis of pneumonia is on supplemental oxygen (2l/min nasal canula). Their ABG results show PaO2 of 52 mm Hg and a PC02 of 46 mm Hg.

The nurse should expect a dx of which type of acute respiratory failure?

hypoxemic respiratory failure.

100

Which cardiac dysrhythmias would indicate defibrillation?

v-tach and v-fib (must be pulseless)

100

What are specific manifestations of PAD ?

- intermittent claudication

( muscle pain thats induced by standing or walking, it gets better with rest) 

- Maker for advanced systemic atherosclerosis 

100

What are normal lab values for kidney function ?

- GFR: >65 

- Creatinine: 0.5-1.2 

- BUN: 10-20 

100

Crackles, dyspnea, coughing, fluid retention are manifestations related to:

left sided heart failure

100

These two complications develop from Coronary Artery Disease and make up Acute Coronary Artery Syndrome

Unstable Angina, Acute Myocardial Infarction

100

What are the parameters of Prehypertension?

120 - 139/80 – 89

100

What medications can you NOT give to a patient with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?

Vasodilators, Digoxin, Diuretics

100

Tachycardia, bounding pulses, restlessness, agitation, and pale, cool, clammy skin are all what?

Early signs of Shock

100

Pt is presenting with less than 400 ml/day, metabolic acidosis, increased BUN/Creatine levels, hyponatremia/hyperkalemia

Initiation (Oliguric) phase

200

A patient who is receiving radiation for neck cancer is reporting pain in their mouth, after inspection you notice that their saliva glands are inflamed and red. What complication of radiation is this?

xerostoma

200

A patient who was previously diagnosed with HIV comes in with a fever of 102.4 and a productive cough, what diagnosis would the nurse expect to see?

Pneumocystis Jirovecii

200

A patient presents to the emergency room with increased dyspnea, sputum volume, & sputum purulence. What diagnosis would the nurse expect?

COPD exacerbation

200

The nurse rounds on patient and sees they are sitting tripod position and breathing rapid and shallow.

What is the nurse’s priority?

Maintain a patent airway.

200

What are the nursing interventions for patients with a pacemaker?

ECG monitoring, early ambulation once able, limit arm and shoulder movement on the operative side, observe insertion site (bleeding, intact, temperature, elevation, pain), anticipate discharge the next day 


200

What type of ulcer appears dry, rounded, punched out, & may become necrotic?

arterial

200

What type of incontinence do you expect a pt with Alzheimer’s disease to have?

functional
200

JVD, murmurs, ascites, anasarca, hepatomegaly are manifestations of:

right sided heart failure

200

Nonspecific marker of inflammation, increased in many patients with CAD

CRP

200

Most concerning organ affected by HTN?

Eyes -- Retinal Damage

Blurred, hemorrhage, vision loss

200

With Atrial Valve Stenosis, this medication should NOT be given due to causing severe hypotension, chest pain, and worsening of preload

Nitroglycerin

200

A patient is experiencing bounding pulses with a fever, and 15 min later they have weak thready pulses, confusion, and Hypotension, which phase of shock are they in now?

Progressive

200

Irreversible, present with altered levels of consciousness, hyperkalemia, hyperglycemia

Chronic Kidney Disease

300

A patient comes in with raccoon eyes and nasal drainage, what sign should the nurse check for?

Halo sign

300

How is a diagnosis of flail chest made?

fracture of 3 or more consecutive ribs or of 2 breaks in more than one rib

300

Which diagnostic results indicates a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?

Sweat chloride test

300

What stage of acute respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by alveolar sacs initially filling with fluid ?

injury/ exudative phase

300

Education/safety regarding AED use

Never place pads over pacemaker and/or defibrillating device, synchronizer set to "off" for DEFIB, synchronizer set to "on" to cardiovert, door must be open, no one touching patient and must verbalize "CLEAR!"

300

What type of ulcer appears dry around the wound but the wound bed itself is moist, irregular shape, will have stasis dermatitis. 

venous

300

What diseasr process is associated with costovertebral angle tenderness?

Acute pyelonephritis

300

Heart muscle is weak and unable to pump hard enough; presents with decreased ejection fraction

systolic heart failure

300

Gender most at risk over age 65

Female

300

5 labs for HTN assessment

· BMP

i. Creatinine/BUN

· CBC

· Serum Lipid Profile

i. Atherosclerosis check

· Electrolytes

i. Uric acid, Na, Mag, K

ii. Heart muscle damage risk

· TSH

300

What kind of murmur can you hear with Mitral Valve Stenosis?

Diastolic murmur

300

What are the six sepsis goals of care?

Oxygen, blood cultures, IV antibiotics, fluid challenge (large bore IV), lactate level (>2), urine output (<30 mL/hr)

300

Output is 1-3L or more a day, hyponatremia/hypokalemia, labs will begin to normalize, hypovolemia, hypotension and kidneys will NOT be able to concentrate urine yet

Maintenance (diuretic) phase

400

A patient is concerned about nasal polyps, stating that they are scared they have cancer after hearing they have polyps. What education should the nurse provide about nasal polyps?

benign growths

400

A patient has reported night sweats, low grade fever, cough and weight loss. The nurse suspects TB, after a positive bleb, the patient gets chest X-ray, what confirms this diagnosis?

Gohns lesions

400

A patient with cystic fibrosis complains of hemoptysis, thick, tenacious, purulent sputum, and pleuritic chest pain. What complication would the nurse suspect?

Bronchiectasis

400

What  5 things would a nurse include in a vent bundle for a patient experiencing acute respiratory distress syndrome?


  • Daily sedation vacation
  • Stress ulcer prophylaxis.
  • Oral care
  • VTE prophylaxis
  • Elevate HOB to 30-45 degrees
400

What is the treatment for asymptomatic atrial flutter?

VTE prophylaxis (Heparin, Warfarin, Coumadin, Xarelto), Beta Blockers to slow HR (metoprolol), conversion with antidysrhythmic drugs (ibutilide) or a calcium channel blocker (Cardizem drip), maintain normal sinus rhythm with amiodarone (Cordaron), flecainide (Tambocor), dronedarone, NO MULTAQ WITH HF


400

Management of venous ulcer: (avoid what)

  • wound care 
  • Unna boot 
  • NO iodine or peroxide
  • Elevate extremities
400

What disease presents as hematuria , proteinuria, lowered GFR, edema, and hypertension? 

Glomerulonephritis

400

Inability of the heart's ventricles to relax and fill during diastole; presents with normal ejection fraction

diastolic heart failure

400

Patho cause of CAD, referred to as “hardening of arteries”

atherosclerosis

400

5 Antihypertensive drug classes in order of importance

· Thiazide Diuretics

· Ace Inhibitors

· Arbs

· Calcium Channel Blockers

· Beta Blockers

400

Which valve replacement requires anticoagulants for life?

Mechanical

400

When do we Zero an arterial line and where is it placed?

At the beginning of every shift, every position change, significant changes in hemodynamic status; must be placed at the Phlebostatic axis (4th intercostal)

400

Recovery phase takes  _______ for kidney function to stabilize

Up to 12 months

500

A pt with a history of HTN comes to the ED with a nosebleed that has not stopped despite leaning forward and applying pressure. Epistaxis in this case is likely compensating for?

chronic hypertension

500

A patient presents to the ED with dyspnea, hypoxemia and tachypnea. After being diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism, what orders should the nurse implement first?

Low molecular weight heparin (Enoxaparin)

Oxygen

500

A couple who both carry the autosomal recessive gene for cystic fibrosis are planning to conceive. What patient education should be provided?

Patient education regarding genetic counseling

500

How would a nurse position a patient experiencing acute respiratory distress syndrome to promote optimal lung expansion?

Prone positioning

500

How do we perform CPR?

First assess for a pulse and absence of breathing! If no pulse, start compressions at 100-120 bpm, 2" depth, over the breastbone at nipple line, 30 compressions at a time, with 2 breaths in between sets, assess for pulse every 2 minutes.

500

Management of arterial ulcers... 

To promote perfusion.....

To alleviate pain....

To promote perfusion..... dangle legs

To alleviate pain.... elevate legs

500

What is the first line of meds used for polycystic kidney disease?

Ace inhibitors

500

mnemonic for patient education for early identification of heart failure

FACES

Fatigue, activity intolerance, cough/chest congestion, edema, shortness of breath

500

ACS can be caused by

coronary artery ruptures

500

Patient has Severe headache, oliguria, dyspnea, excruciating chest and back pain that feels like “tearing”. What type of HTN is this?

HTN Emergency

500

Which Mitral Valvular problem will not allow the valve to close and allow back flow of blood?

Regurgitation

500

What is the difference in causes of obstructive vs. cardiogenic shock?

Obstructive =Cardiac tamponade, pulmonary embolism, tension pneumothorax (a physical blockage); cardiogenic = MI, dissected coronary artery (heart pump failure)

500

Uremia manifestations

Metallic taste in the mouth, anorexia, muscle cramps, itching, fatigue, lethargy, hiccups, edema, dyspnea, paresthesia and more common one GFR is less than 15 


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