Pharm Facts
A 50-year-old, male, patient has been struggling with increased anxiety and occasional insomnia. His primary care physician prescribes lorazepam 1 mg to be taken as needed for acute anxiety episodes. John is informed that while lorazepam can help manage his symptoms, it is crucial to understand its properties and the importance of patient education regarding benzodiazepines. Which of the following statements about lorazepam is true?
A 30-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with symptoms of depression and generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). After a thorough evaluation, her healthcare provider prescribes Lexapro (escitalopram). Which of the following statements is true regarding Lexapro and its use in this patient?
Lexapro is an antipsychotic medication that can be used to treat schizophrenia.
The onset of therapeutic effects of Lexapro may take several weeks, and patients should be advised to continue the medication even if they do not feel immediate improvements.
Lexapro should be discontinued immediately if the patient experiences any side effects, as it is not safe for long-term use.
Lexapro is contraindicated for use in patients with a history of heart disease.
A 28-year-old female patient diagnosed with narcolepsy is prescribed ramelteon to help manage her nighttime sleep disturbances. Which of the following statements accurately describes the mechanism of action of ramelteon?
Ramelteon acts as a non-benzodiazepine sedative by enhancing GABA activity at the GABA-A receptor.
Ramelteon is a melatonin receptor agonist that mimics the action of natural melatonin to regulate sleep-wake cycles.
Ramelteon inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine, promoting wakefulness and alertness.
Ramelteon blocks serotonin receptors, leading to increased sleep onset time.
What is the primary difference between crystalloids and colloids when used in intravenous fluid therapy?
Which buffer system is primarily responsible for maintaining acid-base balance in the blood?
What is the mechanism of action of cholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, used in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease?
A 65-year-old male patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed Stalevo, a combination medication containing levodopa, carbidopa, and entacapone. During a follow-up visit, he expresses concerns about managing his symptoms and the potential side effects of the medication. Which of the following statements about Stalevo is accurate?
Stalevo primarily acts by increasing the availability of dopamine in the brain by directly stimulating dopamine receptors.
Entacapone in Stalevo helps prolong the effects of levodopa by inhibiting the enzyme catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT), which breaks down levodopa in the periphery.
Stalevo is contraindicated in patients with a history of hypertension, as it can significantly elevate blood pressure.
The combination of carbidopa and levodopa in Stalevo allows for a higher dose of levodopa to be used without increasing side effects.
A 55-year-old female patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed Cogentin (benztropine) to manage her symptoms. During a follow-up, she reports experiencing dry mouth and constipation since starting the medication. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Cogentin in the treatment of Parkinson's disease?
Cogentin enhances the release of dopamine from presynaptic neurons, increasing dopamine levels in the brain.
Cogentin is an anticholinergic agent that works by blocking acetylcholine receptors, helping to restore the balance between acetylcholine and dopamine.
Cogentin inhibits the reuptake of serotonin, leading to improved mood and motor function.
Cogentin acts as a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), preventing the breakdown of dopamine in the brain.
What are the three primary goals of cancer chemotherapy?
Cure, control, and palliation
Prevention, diagnosis, and treatment
Surgical removal, radiation, and chemotherapy
Pain relief, emotional support, and quality of life
Which class of chemotherapeutic agents works by directly damaging DNA and is often associated with the risk of secondary malignancies?
Which class of antiseizure medications is primarily indicated for generalized tonic-clonic seizures and works by enhancing the inhibitory effects of GABA?
A 40-year-old female patient with a history of seizure disorder is currently taking phenobarbital and diazepam for seizure management. During a follow-up appointment, she reports increased fatigue and difficulty concentrating. Her healthcare provider is concerned about potential drug interactions and side effects. Which of the following statements best describes a key consideration in managing this patient’s medication regimen?
Both phenobarbital and diazepam are non-sedative medications and do not affect each other's sedative effects.
Phenobarbital can enhance the metabolism of diazepam, potentially leading to decreased effectiveness of diazepam.
The combination of phenobarbital and diazepam may lead to additive CNS depression, increasing the risk of sedation and respiratory depression.
Diazepam is primarily used to treat the underlying cause of seizure disorders, making the use of phenobarbital unnecessary.
A 60-year-old male patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is receiving immunosuppressive therapy to manage his condition. He is also prescribed an immunostimulant to enhance his immune response. During a routine follow-up, the healthcare provider is particularly concerned about the patient’s risk for infections due to his immunocompromised state. Which of the following is the most important monitoring parameter for this patient to detect potential signs of infection?
Regular assessment of liver function tests to monitor for hepatotoxicity associated with immunosuppressants.
Daily temperature checks for signs of fever, which may indicate an underlying infection.
Monitoring blood glucose levels, as immunostimulants can lead to hyperglycemia.
Evaluation of renal function to assess for potential nephrotoxicity from immunosuppressive agents.
A 45-year-old female patient with HIV is prescribed AZT (zidovudine) as part of her antiretroviral therapy regimen. During a follow-up visit, she reports experiencing fatigue, pallor, and occasional headaches. Laboratory tests indicate a decrease in her hemoglobin levels. Which of the following statements best describes a common side effect of AZT that the healthcare provider should monitor for in this patient?
AZT can cause renal toxicity, leading to elevated creatinine levels and potential kidney damage.
AZT is associated with bone marrow suppression, which can result in anemia and decreased red blood cell production.
AZT may lead to gastrointestinal disturbances, including nausea and diarrhea, which can affect nutritional status.
AZT commonly causes peripheral neuropathy, resulting in numbness and tingling in the extremities.
Which type of shock is characterized by severe allergic reactions leading to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability?
When administering norepinephrine as a vasopressor in a patient experiencing shock, what is the primary goal of this treatment?
A 34-year-old female patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder is prescribed Zoloft (sertraline). During a follow-up appointment, she reports experiencing insomnia and gastrointestinal upset since starting the medication. Which of the following is an important consideration when counseling this patient about her treatment with Zoloft?
A 50-year-old female patient with atypical depression is prescribed Nardil (phenelzine), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). During her follow-up, she is reminded about dietary restrictions. Which of the following foods should the patient avoid while taking Nardil to prevent hypertensive crisis?
A 28-year-old female patient with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode and needs medication stabilization. Which of the following medications is commonly used as a first-line treatment for acute mania in bipolar disorder?
A 42-year-old female patient with schizophrenia is prescribed chlorpromazine. During her follow-up appointment, she reports experiencing significant sedation, weight gain, and dry mouth. Which of the following side effects is most commonly associated with chlorpromazine that the healthcare provider should address?
A 30-year-old male patient with schizophrenia is on Haldol (haloperidol) and is being evaluated for medication adjustment due to worsening symptoms. He reports increasing agitation and difficulty concentrating. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider consider regarding this patient’s treatment?
A 25-year-old male patient with schizophrenia is being treated with an atypical antipsychotic but continues to experience negative symptoms, such as social withdrawal, lack of motivation, and diminished emotional expression. Which of the following strategies should the healthcare provider consider to address the negative symptoms?
A 40-year-old male patient with schizophrenia is prescribed a second-generation atypical antipsychotic. During a medication education session, he expresses concerns about potential side effects. Which of the following key points should the healthcare provider emphasize when teaching this patient about his medication?
A 60-year-old female patient undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer is prescribed Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide). The nurse is responsible for educating her about the medication. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize during the patient education regarding Cytoxan?
A 32-year-old patient with a history of seizure disorder is prescribed a benzodiazepine as part of their treatment plan. During the education session, the nurse discusses the role of benzodiazepines in seizure management. Which of the following key points should the nurse include in the patient education regarding benzodiazepines and their use in treating seizure disorders?