Inflammation
Perioperative
Mobility
Cognition
Wild Card
100

What diet order should the nurse anticipate for a patient with cholecystitis?

NPO

100

This refers to the patient's autonomous decision to have surgery or not after discussing risks, benefits, and other treatment options with the provider.

Informed consent

100

This priority assessment should be performed distal to the site of a fracture.

Neurovascular/CMS

100

This is an acute, generally short-term condition that may present as changes in orientation, changes in speech, impaired decision making, and hallucinations

Delirium

100

This term refers to a fracture that results in the bone piercing through the skin.

Open (aka compound) fracture

200

This medication is the recommended emergency treatment for anaphylaxis.

epinephrine

200

Define the pre-operative phase.

The period of time from which the decision for surgery is made up to the point at which the patient is transferred to the OR room table.

200

These are three types of "incorrect" healing of bone fractures.

Nonunion, delayed union, malunion.

200

This term refers to a verbal deficit where the patient cannot speak understandable words but their language comprehension remains intact.

Expressive aphasia

200

This term refers to an RN, LPN, or surgical tech who dons sterile attire, prepares instruments and supplies, and hands instruments to the surgeon during the procedure

scrub RN/role

300

This minimally invasive procedure is a standard surgical treatment for conditions like cholecystitis and cholelithiasis. 

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

300

This rare genetic disorder is triggered by certain anesthetic agents, leading to symptoms like muscle rigidity, tachycardia, tachypnea, and rapid changes in temperature.

malignant hyperthermia

300

Signs of this condition that may occur after a fracture include respiratory distress, neurological changes, and petechiae. 

Fat embolism syndrome

300

This is the first diagnostic test to be performed when a stroke is suspected.

CT without contrast

300

List three potential risk factors for delirium.

pre-existing cognitive impairment, sleep deprivation, immobility, visual impairment, hearing impairment, dehydration, certain medications, age

400

Elevation of these two enzymes are associated with acute pancreatitis.

Lipase, amylase

400

This may occur after prolonged anesthesia, when the tongue and jaw fall backward and obstruct the airway.

hypopharyngeal obstruction

400

List the 5 "P"s of compartment syndrome

Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis

400

How many hours from the onset of a stroke for optimal t-PA administration?

Optimal = 3 hours (in some cases may stretch for 4.5 hours)

400

A Caffeine Halothane Contracture Test is used to determine a patient's susceptibility to what condition?

malignant hyperthermia

500

These are the five cardinal signs of inflammation.

Redness, warmth, swelling, pain, loss of function

500

A PACU nurse may notice this occurring after inadequate reversal of anesthesia medication, with potential symptoms including visual disturbances, difficulty swallowing or speaking, or general muscle weakness.

residual neuromuscular block

500

What is the difference between a strain and a sprain?

A strain: injury to muscle or tendon (overuse, overstretching, excessive stress)

Sprain: injury to ligaments and tendons surrounding a joint (twisting/hyperextension of joint)

500

A patient with a stroke on this side may display increased distractibility, impulsive behavior, poor judgment, and lack awareness of these deficits

Right Hemispheric Stroke

500

In a patient who has had a stroke, the "penumbra" refers to this.

The area of ischemic tissue around the infarction that can still be salvaged with timely intervention

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