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100

What is this physical exam finding and what disease?


Ulnar deviation in RA

100

What is the disease associated with the imaging?



OA

100

What does she have? What is the name of the rash?

SLE, malar butterfly rash

100

What is this physical exam finding called and what disease is this present in?

Podagra, gout

100

This patient presented to the ER for new onset vision loss and headache over the temple. They have also been experiencing jaw pain with chewing, however this patient also has a history of TMJ and attributes it to that. Given these findings, what is next best step in management for this patient?

High dose prednisone

200

What is this deformity and in what disease?

Swan neck in RA

200

What are the common radiographic findings in OA?

  • Joint space narrowing 
  • Osteophytes
  • Subchondral sclerosis
  • Subchondral bone cysts
200

What is the cornerstone of therapy (regardless of disease activity) in SLE?

Hydroxychloroquine

200

What is a first line agent for acute gout flare?

Prednisone x 5 days

200

This patient developed asymmetric arthritis and has a history of dysuria, frequency and mucopurulent urethral discharge. What is the diagnosis?

Gonoccocal arthritis

300

What is the cornerstone of therapy (regardless of disease activity) in RA?

Methotrexate - DMARD

300

What joints are commonly affected in OA?

  • Predominantly weight-bearing joints (e.g., hip and knees)
  • PIP and DIP joints(Bouchard nodes and Heberden nodesrespectively)
  • First CMC joint
300

Which antigen specific ANAs are present in SLE?

Anti-dsDNA antibodies and Anti-Sm antibodies

300

Patient was started on a medication to treat their hypertension, however this precipitated a gout attack. What class of medication was initiated?

Thiazide

300

65 year old male is here because he has been experiencing nail pitting/onycholysis for quite some along with joint pain and rash on the dorsal surface of his hands. What is an appropriate topical treatment for this condition?

Clobetasol

400

Which serological marker is most specific in RA?

Anti-CCP

400

What are non pharmacological treatment options in OA?

Exercise, weight loss, physical therapy and occupational therapy

400

Which syndrome should all SLE patients be screened for and why?

Antiphospholipid syndrome, high risk of clotting

400

Should chronic urate lowering therapy be continued while being treated for an acute gout flare?

Yes

400

Which disease is associated this finding and what antibodies would you test for?

Sjogren syndrome, anti-Ro, anti-La

500

Which joints are spared in RA?

DIP

500

At what point do you refer patients with OA to orthopedic surgery for joint replacement?

Surgery is typically indicated if conservative measures fail

500

SLE patient is in the ED for hypertension, edema, hematuria. BMP is positive for AKI and UA demonstrates proteinuria, hematuria, cellular casts. What is this specific manifestation called?

Lupus nephritis

500

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of gout?

Arthrocentesis with synovial fluid analysis

500

This patient is complaining of foreign body sensation in their eye, dysuria and burning at the urethral meatus, and knee pain/swelling after experiencing diarrhea from food poisoning. What is the diagnosis?

Reactive arthritis 

600

What is a complication of cervical HVLA in a patient with RA?

Atlantioaxial subluxation

600

How often are you able to administer joint injections?

Every 3 months

600

What is an associated complication of chronic hydroxychloroquine use?

Retinal toxicity

600

Are serum uric acid levels always elevated during an acute flare?

No

600

What is the disease and what is the radiographic finding called?


Ankylosing spondylitis, bamboo spine

700

Which joints are affected in RA?

  • Frequently affected joints
    • Metacarpophalangeal joints (MCP joints)
    • Proximal interphalangeal joints (PIP joints)
    • Wrist joints
    • Knee joints
    • Metatarsophalangeal joints (MTP joints)
700

What is a NSAID that can be prescribed with lower rates of gastroduodenal ulcers, GI complaints, and serious GI events?

Celebrex

700

Women with this disease may experience 3+ consecutive spontaneous abortions before 10 weeks, 1+ unexplained fetal death at or 10 weeks, or premature birth before 34 weeks due to severe PreE or placental insufficiency.

Antiphosphlipid syndrome

700

What type of crystals are these and is this positively or negatively birefringent?

Monosodium urate crystals, negatively birefringent

700

What is the disease associated with this exam finding and can it lead to a nephritic or nephrotic syndrome?


IgA vasculitis (HSP), Nephritic syndrome

800

What are the common radiographic findings in RA?

  • Joint space narrowing
  • Erosions
  • Subchondral cysts
  • Juxtaarticular demineralization
800

What is the name of the study that compared Celebrex with ibuprofen and naproxen's GI side effects?

PRECISION

800

What is this type of cutaneous lupus called?

Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE), a chronic, scarring variant of cutaneous lupus erythematosus.

800

What are the absolute indications for urate lowering therapy?

  • Absolute indications
    • Damage due to chronic gout seen on imaging
    • Tophi development
    • Frequent gout attacks (≥ 2 per year)
800

What is the syndrome associated with this exam finding? Which antibodies (100 point bonus)?


C - calcinosis

R - reynaud's

E - esophageal dysfunction

S - sclerodactyly

T - telangectasia

Antibodies - anti centromere antibodies

900

What is this exam finding called and in what disease?


Tophi, gout

900

Which opioid is preferred for patient with OA of the knee?

Tramadol

900

What are the three most common causes of death in SLE?

Renal disease, Infections, and Cardiovascular complications

900

Should you initiate anti inflammatory prophylaxis before initiating urate lowering therapy?

Yes

900

Disease and crystal deposition


Calcific tendinitis, Basic calcium phosphate (BCP) crystals

1000

Name the pathological process that is occurring and in what disease?


Psoriatic arthritis with marginal erosions of the distal interphalangeal joints. The bone gets eroded here first because the overlying cartilage is much thinner than in the centre of the joint. You will notice how the PIP and MCP joints are spared, whereas in the classical appearance of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) we see involvement of the MCP and PIP joints with sparing of the DIP joints.

1000

What are the ingredients for a knee injection (include medications, their strength, dose in mL and needle specs) according to Dr. Kutsche's Injection Preparation. Where can this be found (100 point bonus)?

Kenalog (40 mg/ml) - 1 ml

Methylprednisolone (40 mg/ml) - 1 ml

Lidocaine (1% without epi) - 1 ml

Needle - 25 g, 1.5 inch

Bonus points - The lab

1000

Which test can differentiate Discoid Lupus from SLE?

Lupus band test

1000

What is this physical exam finding and in what disease?

Rheumatoid nodules in RA

1000

Which rheumatological condition is scream cream most indicated in?

None

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