Cardiology
Pulmonology
Gastroenterology
Nephrology
Miscellaneous
100
The ejection fraction cutoff point on transthoracic echocardiogram to diagnose heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.
What is <40% ejection fraction?
100
On a ventilator these are 2 things you can increase in order to decrease a patient's CO2 levels
What is:
1. Tidal volume
2. Respiratory rate
100
This is the age to start screening colonoscopies in patients with no family history of colon cancer.
What is age 45?
100
This is the amount of proteinuria required to diagnose nephrotic syndrome.
What is 24h urine protein > 3.5g or spot urine protein/creatinine ratio > 3.5:1
100
This is the cutoff hemoglobin A1C to diagnose type 2 diabetes mellitus.
What is > or = 6.5%
200
These are the 4 medication classes that comprise goal-directed medical therapy for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.
What is:
1. Beta-blocker
2. ACE inhibitor
3. SGLT2 inhibitor
4. Mineralocorticoid antagonist
200
This diagnosis is obtained by:
1. Pus seen on thoracentesis
Thoracentesis fluid showing:
2. pH < 7.2
3. Glucose < 40 mg/dL
4. Exudative effusion by lights criteria
5. LDH > 1000 IU/L
6. A WBC count above 50,000 cells/µL
7. A positive Gram stain or culture
What is empyema?
200
These are possible causes of pancreatitis. (must name 5)
What are: (any of these 5 will be accepted)
1. Idiopathic
2. Gallstone
3. Ethanol
4. Trauma
5. Steroids
6. Mumps
7. Autoimmune (sausage pancreas)
8. Scorpion Stings
9. Hypertriglyceridemia, hyperglycemia
10. ERCP
11. Drugs (Tetracyclines, ACEi, thiazides, estrogens, valproate, sulfonamides, antidepressants, aminosalicylates)
200
These are the generally accepted indications for hemodialysis
What are:
1. Acidosis (pH < 7.1)
2. Electrolyte Imbalance ( K > 6.5)
3. Intoxications
4. Overload (Fluid)
5. Uremia (causing pericarditis or encephalopathy)
200
This is the purpose of the initial CT head in a patient coming in with acute stroke.
What is rule out hemorrhagic stroke?
300
Occlusion of this artery is most likely to cause a 3rd degree AV block
What is the right coronary artery?
300
This class of antibiotics is the only class that contains oral antibiotics that cover pseudomonas infections.
What are Fluoroquinolones?
300
This medication class is indicated to reduce risk of variceal bleeding in patients with decompensated liver cirrhosis with varices.
What are non-selective beta blockers (Propranolo, carvedilol, nadolol)
300
After diagnosis of the systemic vasculitis that spares the lungs, whose image can present as seen below,
these infections are next tested after diagnosis is made.
What are hepatitis B and C?
300
This is the main treatment for a patient who presents with nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, sweet smelling breath, blood glucose 450, potassium 5.5, bicarb 10, and anion gap 20.
What is insulin drip.
400
These are the 3 main causes of acute aortic regurgitation
What are:
1. Aortic Dissection
2. Trauma
3. Endocarditis
400
This is why patients die from massive pulmonary emboli.
What is right sided heart failure/obstructive shock?
400
Apart from standard medical therapy for upper GI bleed, these 2 medications are added in the setting of advanced liver cirrhosis with variceal bleeding.
What is: Octreotide and antibiotics (Rocephin while NPO, then when switched to oral can be Bactrim, ciprofloxacin, or norfloxacin.) (Treatment duration 7 days)
400
Often seen in first time dialysis patients, this syndrome is thought to be caused by an acute drop in BUN leading to cerebral dysfunction. Symptoms include dizziness, nausea, vomiting, cramps, confusion, encephalopathy, and even seizures
What is Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome
400
This genetic disease is caused by mutations in the dynein protein, leading to ciliary dyskinesia. These patients present with the triad of dextrocardia, bronchiectasis, and paranasal sinusitis.
What is Kartagener syndrome?
500
This inflammatory lung disease can cause both dilated cardiomyopathy and restrictive cardiomyopathy
What is sarcoidosis?
500
These are the 2 indications to use anaerobic coverage for aspiration pneumonia per IDSA guidelines
What is:
1. Pulmonary abscess
2. Empyema
500
This is the primary reason for using protonix 40mg IV BID in ACUTE upper GI bleed
What is Clot stability
500
This is the main treatment for a patient who presents with non-anion gap metabolic acidosis, hypokalemia, and a positive urine anion gap
What is potassium citrate
500
This monoclonal antibody that targets and inhibits complement protein CD5 is often used in the treatment of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria.
What is eculizumab?