Oncology
Endocrine I
Endocrine II
Liver Disorders I
Liver Disorders II
100

Warning sign of cancer (1)

What is 

  • Changes in bowel or bladder habits 

  • A sore that does not heal

  • Unusual bleeding or discharge

  • Thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere

  • Indigestion or difficulty swallowing

  • Obvious change in a wart or mole

  • Nagging cough or hoarseness 

  • White patches inside mouth or on tongue

  • Unexplained fever

  • Unexplained tiredness / Fatigue

  • Weight less of 10 pounds or more 

  • Persistent pain or discomfort     

100

This type of “face” is seen with Cushing’s syndrome

What is a “moon face”?

First indication of Cushing syndrome may be clinical presentation

Truncal obesity (not arms/legs)

“Moon face”

Purplish/red striae of abd,

    breast, or buttocks


100

The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism? 

What is accidental removal of, or damage to parathyroid glands or their blood supply during neck surgery?


100

A patient with liver disease presents with ascites and esophageal varices. The nurse understands that these complications are primarily caused by: 

a) Decreased production of bile

b)Increased venous pressure in the portal circulation

c) Excess glycogen storage

d) Inability of the liver to detoxify harmful substances

Rationale: b. Increased venous pressure in the portal circulation

Why - Obstructed blood flow into the liver, leading to the development of collateral channels, ascites, and esophageal varices. 

- A) Decreased bile production mainly affects digestion and fat absorption, not venous pressure

- C) Excess glycogen storage affects glucose regulation, not circulation or ascites formation

- D) Inability to detoxify leads to toxin buildup but does not cause varices or ascites

100

A nurse is assessing a patient diagnosed with acute viral hepatitis. Which symptom would the nurse anticipate during the acute phase? 

a) Polyuria and hypertension

b) Jaundice, dark urine, and clay-colored stools

c) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes and hypertension

d) Increased appetite and weight gain


Rationale: b) Jaundice, dark urine, and clay-colored stools


Why dark urine? Buildup of bilirubin in the blood and excretion in the urine.


  • (A) Incorrect. Polyuria and hypertension are not characteristic of acute hepatitis. Instead, the patient may have nausea, anorexia, and low-grade fever. 

  • (B) Correct. Jaundice, dark urine, and clay-colored stools are expected findings due to hyperbilirubinemia and bile flow obstruction. 

  • © Incorrect. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes and hypertension are not typical in acute hepatitis. The patient may have malaise, fatigue, and hepatomegaly. 

  • (D) Incorrect. Increased appetite and weight gain are incorrect because acute hepatitis typically causes anorexia and weight loss. 

200

Benign versus Malignant Tumors

 What is Benign?

BENIGN TUMOR CHARACTERISTICS

  • Specific Morphology, Normal Chromosomes

  • A Smaller Nuclear-to-Cytoplasmic Ratio

  • Specific Differentiated Functions

  • Tight Adherence

  • Encapsulated

  • Slight Vascularity

  • No Migration/ Metastasis

  • Orderly, Expansive Growth

  • Rare Recurrence

    MALIGNANT TUMOR CHARACTERISTICS

  • Anaplasia, Abnormal Chromosomes (Aneuploidy)

  • A Larger Nuclear-to-Cytoplasmic Ratio

  • Poorly Differentiated Functions

  • Loose Adherence

  • Rarely encapsulated

  • Moderate to Marked Vascularity (Angiogenesis)

  • Migration/ Metastasis

  • Contact Inhibition Does Not Occur

  • Heightened use of nutrients and intrinsic growth factor

  • Infiltrative and Expansive Growth

  • Pyramid effect

  • Doubling time

  • Possible Recurrence

200

Hormone that increases the calcium storage in bones

What is Calcitonin?

200

Examples of food high in Ca+ recommended for patients suffering through hypoparathyroidism

What is dark green vegs, soybeans, tofu?

200

Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

a) Storing vitamins and minerals

b) Detoxifying harmful substances 

c) Producing red blood cells in an adult

d) Storing glycogen for energy use

e) Making clotting factors that stop bleeding

f) Stores energy by stockpiling glucose into glycogen

g) Makes proteins that you need to stay healthy, and grow

Rationale: C) The liver does not produce red blood cells in adults. This function primarily occurs in the bone marrow. However, in fetuses, the liver does produce red blood cells.

  • (A) The liver stores vitamins, minerals, and iron for future use. 

  • (B) The liver detoxifies substances such as alcohol and medications. 

  • (D) The liver stores excess glucose as glycogen for energy use when needed. 

200

Which of the following could you attribute as an early manifestation of liver cirrhosis?

a) Mild hepatomegaly

b) Jaundice

c) Portal Hypertension

d) Peripheral edema

Rationale: a) Mild hepatomegaly

In the early stages of liver cirrhosis, mild hepatomegaly can be an early sign and is often detected during a physical examination. Fatigue and mild hepatomegaly may occur before more advanced symptoms like jaundice, portal hypertension, or peripheral edema. These later symptoms often develop as the cirrhosis becomes more severe and the liver function deteriorates.

300

Most common side effect of radiation therapy

What is bone marrow suppression?

300

This is the treatment of choice for patients suffering from Grave’s disease.. 

What is Radioactive iodine therapy (RAI)?

Options:

  • Medications

  • Radioactive iodine therapy (RAI) - treatment of choice

  • Thyroidectomy

Treatment choice based on patient age, preferences, disease severity

300

The most common feature of Cushing's syndrome?

 What is weight gain?

  • Classic:  Moon Face 

  • Pronounced changes in body appearance

  • Weight gain = most common feature

  • Sodium / water retention

  • Hypertension-mineralocorticoid fluid retention

  • Hyperglycemia

  • Protein wasting (muscle weakness)

  • Delayed wound healing

  • Mood disturbances

  • Skin weaker, thinner

  • Osteoporosis—pathologic fx

  • Severe acne, virilization in women, feminization in men

300

Which of the following is a primary mode of transmission for Hepatitis A (HAV)

a) Blood transfusions

b) Sexual contact

c) Fecal-oral route

d) Needle sharing


Rationale: C) Fecal oral route

What are common modes of transmission for Hepatitis B and C? Blood and bodily fluids


What are examples of the fecal-oral route? Consuming food/water contaminated with feces from infected person, or consuming food prepared by someone that didn’t wash their hands. 

  • (A) Blood transfusions are a mode of transmission for Hepatitis B and C, but not HAV. 

  • (B) Sexual contact is a common mode of transmission for HBV and HCV but not for HAV. 

  • © The fecal-oral route is correct because HAV spreads primarily through contaminated food or water. 

  • (D) Needle sharing is a risk factor for HBV and HCV, but not HAV. 

300

A patient presents with cirrhosis, portal hypertension and oliguria. His laboratory results show elevated BUN and Cr levels. On examination, the patient has ascites and mild peripheral edema. Which of the following interventions would you attempt first for managing his condition?

a) Initiate diuretics to reduce ascites and improve urinary output.

b) Contact the provider to suggest beginning dialysis. 

c) Administer vasopressors to increase SVR and improve renal perfusion.

d) Administer fluids to restore arterial blood volume and reverse renal vasoconstriction. 


Rationale: b) Contact the provider to suggest beginning dialysis

In a patient with cirrhosis and portal hypertension, the splanchnic vasodilation leads to decreased arterial blood volume, which triggers renal vasoconstriction and results in hepatorenal syndrome. The priority nursing intervention is to administer IV fluids to restore blood volume, which helps reverse renal vasoconstriction and improve renal perfusion. While diuretics or dialysis may be considered later, restoring blood volume is the first step in managing this patient’s condition.

400

Regression of cell to an immature or undifferentiated cell type. (Dysplasia, Metaplasia, Hyperplasia, Anaplasia)

What is anaplasia?

  • Hyperplasia: increase in the number of cells for those capable of mitotic division

  • Metaplasia: Reversible change in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type in response to chronic irritation and inflammation

  • Dysplasia: deranged cell growth of a specific tissues that results in cells that vary in size, shape, and organization (abnormal but can be reversible if irritation or inflammation removed)

  • Anaplasia: Regression of cell to an immature or undifferentiated cell type.








400

Most common cause for primary hyperparathyroidism. 

 What is benign tumor in parathyroid?

Primary

Most common cause: benign tumor in parathyroid

Age 30-70 yrs (peak 40s – 50s)

History of head / neck radiation =    risk


Secondary

Compensatory response to conditions that cause hypocalcemia

Vit D deficiency, malabsorption, CKD, hyperphosphatemia


Tertiary

Hyperplasia of parathyroid = loss of negative feedback from circulating Ca

Autonomous secretion of PTH in presence of normal Ca

400

The corticosteroids decreased in secondary Addison’s disease

What is Glucocorticoid (cortisol) and androgens?

400

A nurse is reviewing a patient's liver biopsy results, which indicate fibrosis. The patient asks what this means. What is the nurse's best response?

a) "Fibrosis means your liver has developed scar tissues from long-term inflammation."

b) "Fibrosis means your liver is permanently damaged and can no longer function."

c) "Fibrosis is a normal part of the healing process and is not a concern."

d) "Fibrosis means you have end-stage liver failure and need a transplant."

Rationale : a) "Fibrosis means your liver has developed scar tissues from long term-inflammation."

Can fibrosis be reversed, and how is it treated? Fibrosis can be reversed or slowed down if treated early, particularly through antiviral therapy for viral hepatitis or lifestyle changes (ex. Cessation of alcohol use, weight management).

  • (A) Correct because fibrosis occurs when chronic inflammation leads to the formation of scar tissue in the liver. 


  • (B) Incorrect because while the body attempts to heal, excessive fibrosis can lead to cirrhosis and impaired liver function. 


  • © Incorrect because while the body attempts to heal, excessive fibrosis can lead to cirrhosis and impaired liver function. 


  • (D) Incorrect because fibrosis is an early stage of liver damage, while cirrhosis and liver failure are more advanced stages. 

400

What is the most common complaint during the chronic phase of hepatitis?

Malaise and easy fatigability

Rationale: Chronic hepatitis often causes persistent fatigue and malaise due to ongoing liver inflammation and impaired metabolism. The liver plays a role in detoxification, energy storage, and metabolism, so its dysfunction leads to feelings of exhaustion. Toxic substances (like ammonia) may accumulate in the body, contributing to muscle pain and fatigue.

Hormonal imbalances cause aches and pains!

500

BRCA 1, BRCA 2 are tumor markers for this    

What is Breast/Ovarian Cancer?


AFP- Liver and Germ cell carcinomas

Beta HCG- Choriocarcinoma and Germ cell Tumors

BRCA 1, BRCA 2- Breast and Ovarian Cancer (Gene mutation)

CA-125- Ovarian Cancer

CEA- Colorectal Cancer

PSA- Prostate Cancer

500

The three primary features of addison’s disease. 

What is 

Progressive weakness / fatigue

Weight loss

Anorexia


Manifestations – slow onset

Progressive weakness / fatigue

Weight loss

Anorexia

Skin hyperpigmentation (sun exposed areas/joint folds) -     ACTH

Hyponatremia / Salt craving

Hyperkalemia

N/V, diarrhea

Hypercalcemia

Complications

Addisonian Crisis — emergency caused by sharp drop in adrenocortical hormones




500

The medication is used to inhibit synthesis of thyroid hormones for patients with Grave's disease and in their 1st trimester of pregnancy. 

What is the Propylthiouracil (PTU) ?

  • Meds (pts who have high likelihood of remission):

    • Inhibit synthesis of thyroid hormones

      • Methimazole (preferred – less side effects)

        • Slower rate of action but is more potent

      • Propylthiouracil (PTU) – 1st trimester of pregnancy 

      • Iodine – Lg doses rapidly inhibit synthesis of T3 + T4

    • β-blockers – symptomatic relief of thyrotoxicosis

      • Block sympathetic stimulation:

        • Decrease tachycardia

        • Decrease nervousness / irritability

        • Decrease tremors




500

A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic viral hepatitis. Which finding would indicate the disease is progressing toward cirrhosis?

a) Increased albumin levels

b) Decreased liver enzyme levels

c) Persistent jaundice and ascites

d) Improvement in liver function tests

Rationale: 

What are other signs? Edema, easy bruising, fatigue, itching, and mental confusion (Hepatic encephalopathy). 

Why jaundice? The liver can no longer effectively process bilirubin, leading to its buildup in the blood

  • (A) Incorrect because albumin production decreases as liver function worsens. 

  • (B) Incorrect because while enzymes may decrease in end-stage disease, active hepatitis or cirrhosis usually causes increased liver enzymes. 

  • © Correct because jaundice (due to impaired bilirubin processing) and ascites (due to portal hypertension and low albumin) are signs of worsening liver disease. 

  • (D) Incorrect because this would indicate recovery rather than progression toward cirrhosis. 

500

What are possible neurological symptoms associated with liver disease due to toxin accumulation?

Answer: Confusion, nausea, loss of appetite, hepatic encephalopathy

Rationale: Toxins, particularly ammonia, accumulate in liver disease and affect brain function, leading to confusion, nausea, and appetite loss. In severe cases, this can progress to hepatic encephalopathy, causing more profound neurological impairment. 

M
e
n
u