Runway & Airport Signs & Markings
Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
A. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
B. Centerline dashes starting at the threshold.
C. Red chevron marks in the nonlanding portion of the runway.
A. Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
A. Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR.
B. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
C. Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.
B. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A. Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
B. Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
C. Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.
B. Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
During a takeoff into IMC at a controlled field with low ceilings, you should contact departure
A. before entering the clouds.
B. when the tower instructs the change.
C. upon reaching the traffic pattern altitude.
B. when the tower instructs the change.
Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?
A. Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace.
B. Class A, special use airspace, Class D, and Class E.
C. Special use airspace, Class E, Class D, Class A, Class B, and Class C.
A. Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace.
What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker (aka Captain's Bars)?
A. 500 feet.
B. 1,000 feet.
C. 1,500 feet.
B. 1,000 feet.
When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as
A. white and the far bar as red.
B. red and the far bar as white.
C. white and the far bar as white.
A. white and the far bar as red.
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)
A. Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.
B. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C. Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
B. Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
What does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?
A. Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
B. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
C. You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
B. Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
A. The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
B. That Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area.
C. The Class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, where designated.
A. The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
Destination signs indicate
A. The taxiway a pilot is on.
B. The runway a pilot is on.
C. The direction to takeoff runways.
C. The direction to takeoff runways.
If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A. start a climb to reach the proper glidepath.
B. continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight.
C. level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.
C. level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.
An abbreviated departure clearance “...CLEARED AS FILED...” will always contain the name
A. and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.
B. of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
C. of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.
B. of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should
A. turn outbound and complete the procedure turn.
B. continue as assigned and query ATC.
C. turn inbound and join the final approach course.
B. continue as assigned and query ATC.
Class G airspace is that airspace where
A. ATC does not control air traffic.
B. ATC controls only IFR flights.
C. the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles.
A. ATC does not control air traffic.
Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are
A. white, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
B. yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
C. yellow, and the solid lines are nearest the runway.
B. yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide
A. rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.
B. a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position.
C. rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.
A. rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.
When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that
A. ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.
B. The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.
C. ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.
B. The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.” This phrase means that
A. You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
B. Radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.
C. You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.
C. You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.
MOAs are established to
A. prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities.
B. separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.
C. restrict civil aircraft during periods of high-density training activities.
B. separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.
The purpose of an enhanced taxiway centerline is to
A. identify the location of taxiing aircraft during low visibility operations.
B. highlight an approaching runway holding position marking.
C. supplement location signs in confirming the designation of the taxiway.
B. highlight an approaching runway holding position marking.
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
A. MALSR.
B. HIRL.
C. REIL.
C. REIL.
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...”?
A. The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
B. Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
C. The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
B. Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
You are in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?
A. Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.
B. Set transponder to code 7700 for 1 minute, then to 7600, and fly to an area with VFR weather conditions.
C. Set transponder to 7700 and fly to an area where you can let down in VFR conditions.
A. Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.
Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?
A. Any airspace when the visibility is less than 1 mile.
B. Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace.
C. Positive control area, Continental Control Area, and all other airspace, if the visibility is less than 1 mile.
B. Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace.