Genomics, Proteomics, and Quantitative Genetics
Population Genetics and Phylogenetics
Mating Systems and Inbreeding
Gene Regulation and Cancer Genetics
Biotech-nology
100
True or False: A scientist examining shared genes between fruit flies and humans is using functional genomics
False
They are using comparative genetics
100
Define cladogenesis and anagenesis
Cladogenesis: Splitting of a lineage into two via evolution; formation of a new species
Anagenesis: evolution taking place in a single group (a lineage) with the passage of time
100
What results in reduced performance and reproductive success of an individual?
Inbreeding depression
100
True or false: Telomerase is not normally expressed in somatic cells which keeps them from dividing indefinitely
True
100
Name and describe the steps of PCR
Denaturation: separation of DNA strands
Annealing: bonding of primers to DNA template
Extension: polymerase adds nucleotides to replicate DNA
200
What is a complex trait? What area of genetics deals with analyzing complex traits?
A complex trait is a trait that is influence by genetic and environmental factors (polygenic and environment)
Analyzed by quantitative genetics
200
What are the two types of genetic drift?
Founder Effect: establishment of a population by a small number of
individuals
Genetic Bottleneck: population undergoes a drastic reduction in
population size
200
What is the major risk of inbreeding? What is the advantage of inbreeding?
Risk: The increase in individuals carrying homozygous recessive alleles (deleterious recessive alleles)
Advantage: Provides uniformity
200
Describe a proto-oncogene
Normal cellular gene that controls cell division; when mutated, it may
become an oncogene and contribute to cancer progression
200
In Sanger sequencing, what terminates DNA sequencing at a specific base?
3’ OH of ddNTPs leads to chain termination and halts DNA synthesis from continuing
300
What is variance and which line has the highest variance?
Variance - how broad the distribution is around the mean
Orange line has highest variance
300
What is fitness and how is it calculated
The relative reproductive success of a genotype
W = mean # offspring for specific genotype mean # offspring of most prolific genotype
300
Name the mating strategies that increase homozygosity
Linebreeding
Backcrossing
300
What type of molecule are encoded by genes involved regulation of epigenetic changes?
Protein
300
What tool would you use if you wanted to run a study on a complex characteristic?
Genome-wide association study (GWAS)
400
What is the difference between meristic and threshold characteristics? Give an example of each
Meristic: Determined by multiple genetic and environmental factors and can be measured in whole numbers. ex: litter size
Threshold: Measured by presence or absence. ex: disease susceptibility
400
Name four assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
Random mating
No mutation
Large population size
No natural selection
No migration
400
What are the two outcomes of increasing heterozygosity?
Hybrid vigor
Outbreeding depression
400
What is a key protein in the control of the cell cycle?
Cyclin dependent kinases (CDKs)
combines with cyclin
400
What is whole-genome shotgun sequencing
Method of sequencing a genome in which sequenced fragments are assembled into the correct sequence of contigs by using only the overlaps in sequence.
500
Provide the phenotypic variance equation and the genotypic variance equation. What do the variables mean?
Phenotypic variance:
P = G + E + GE = genotypic variance + environmental variance + genotypic-environmental interaction variance
Genotypic variance:
G = A + D + I = additive genetic variance + dominance genetic variance + genic interaction variance
500
Define selection coefficient and provide the equation for it
Relative intensity of selection against a genotype
S = 1 - W
500
What is the equation to measure the extent of the inbreeding of an individual relative to the subpopulation? And what would a value of 0 imply?
FIS = FIS= 1 – (HO/HS)
FIS> 0 excess homozygotes
FIS = 0 in HWE
FIS< 0 excess heterozygotes
500
Name the two ways that a retrovirus can cause cancer
(a) mutating and rearranging proto-oncogenes
(b) inserting strong promoters near proto-oncogenes
500
Name two components of the CRISPR-Cas9 system and their role in gene editing
Guide RNA - sequence that is complementary to and recognizes DNA sequence at cleavage site, guides Cas9 to cut at specific site
Cas9 protein - cuts DNA
PAM - DNA sequence on target DNA that Cas9 recognizes and binds to in order to make cut