Cranial Nerves & ANS
Special Senses
Endocrine System & Blood
Lymphatics & Immunity
100
Give the name & # of two cranial nerves responsible for movement of the tongue.
Glossopharyngeal Nerve (IX)
Hypoglossal Nerve (XII)
100
The semicircular canals mediate which of the special senses?
Dynamic balance
100
Name the two primary hormones responsible for calcium homeostasis & describe the overall effect of each.
PTH - targets osteoclasts (resorption), GI (absorption), & kidneys (reabsorption) in order TO RAISE blood Ca2+ when it is too low.
CT or CALC - stimulates osteoblasts to build bone matrix & inhibits osteoclasts in order TO REDUCE blood Ca2+ when it is too high.
Also... E2/T - serve to block PTH receptors on osteoclasts to preserve bone density
100
Describe two primary functions of the lymphatic system.
fluid balance
recovering liver proteins from plasma
immune surveillance
200
Give the name & # of the cranial nerve responsible for equilibrium & hearing.
Vestibulocochlear Nerve (VIII)
200
Name the type(s) of energy/stimuli involved in each of the 6 special senses.
Smell – odorants (volatile chemicals)
Taste – tastants (dissolved chemicals)
Hearing – sound/vibration
Static balance – gravity
Dynamic balance – momentum
Vision – photons/light waves
200
Name the three groups of corticosteroids & give one example of each.
mineralocorticoids - ALD
glucocorticoids – CORT
gonadocorticoids - T (androgens)
200
List two specific benefits of fever.
Increased body temperature:
1) Raises metabolism, speeding antibody production, leukopoiesis, tissue repair, etc.
2) Sequestration of iron/zinc in the liver/spleen (binding proteins are denatured just enough to lock it up), preventing bacteria from using them as cofactors for reproductive enzymes.
300
List two functions of the Vagus Nerve.
motor - innervates visceral organs (for PNS)
sensory - taste from posterior 1/3 of tongue
300
Name the structure noted below:
incus (second of the three ear ossicles)
in between the malleus & stapes
300
Name two hormones that trigger gluconeogenesis.
GLU
CORT
300
Name the structures noted & describe their functions.
A - tonsils; ring of lymphatic tissue that protects pharynx from ingested or inhaled antigens
B - thymus; training center for T-lymphocytes
C - spleen; blood filter, safely removes dead RBCs & surveils blood for antigens
400
Identify the brain lobe(s) that contains each of the following functional areas:
A) Gustatory cortex
B) Auditory cortex
C) Olfactory cortex
D) Visual cortex
E) Somatosensory cortex
Gustatory cortex - Parietal lobe & insula
Auditory cortex - Temporal lobe
Olfactory cortex - Frontal lobe
Visual cortex - Occipital lobe
Somatosensory cortex - Parietal lobe
400
Name the two special senses that use chemically gated receptors.
taste & smell
400
Name two hormones that are secreted in order to regulate lactation & describe each of their roles.
PRL – triggers milk production
OXT – triggers milk ejection/letdown
400
Name & differentiate between CP & IFN (i.e., what are they, which organisms do they target, how does each work generally?)
COMPLEMENT (CP) - proteins from liver circulating in the blood will bind to BACTERIA (cell wall components), triggering a cascade, ending in the formation of a MAC (membrane attack complex) that will punch holes in the bacteria, leading to cell lysis. Some of the activated complement proteins can also stimulate inflammation & opsonization, enhancing phagocytosis.
INTERFERON (IFN) - proteins secreted by VIRALLY infected cells that travel to neighboring cells as a warning. IFN triggers the healthy neighbors to produce AVPs (anti-viral proteins) that block translation of proteins at the ribosomes for ~3 days, thus 'interfering' with viral replication.
500
Name the cranial nerve noted below, origin, target & general function:
Optic Nerve (CN II) originates from the retina and carries sensory impulses for vision to the occipital lobe.
500
Name three special senses that use mechanically gated receptors.
static balance
dynamic balance
hearing
500
If blood pressure is too high…
What hormone will be secreted?
Where will it be secreted from?
Where will it go?
What will it do?
ANP from heart will go to kidneys to inhibit reabsorption of sodium.
The excreted sodium will draw water out with it, increasing urine output & decreasing BV & BP.
If it is too LOW...
ALD from the adrenal cortex will go to the kidneys to stimulate sodium reabsorption. This increases water reabsorption via osmosis, thus decreasing urine output & increasing BV & BP.
500
Define opsonization.
When an antigen is coated with 'handles' which serve as affinity sites for phagocytes.
These 'handles' are called opsonins & can be either complement proteins or antibodies.
600
Name the cranial nerve noted below & list its targets & general function(s):
Accessory Nerve (CN XI) targets the trapezius & sternocleidomastoid muscles to move the head/neck.
600
Name the gelatinous “membrane” where hair cells are embedded in each of the following special senses:
dynamic equilibrium, hearing, static equilibrium
dynamic balance = cupula
hearing = tectorial membrane
static balance = otolith membrane
600
If blood solute concentrations are too high…
What hormone will be secreted?
Where will it be secreted from?
Where will it go?
What will it do?
ADH from PP goes to kidneys to open aquaporins & retain water.
This decreases urine output, increases BV & BP & dilutes the blood.
600
Name & describe the differences of the five classes of antibodies.
IgA - secretory dimers (e.g., in saliva, mucus, & breast milk)
IgG - most diverse monomers, circulate in plasma
IgM - pentamer antibody binds many antigens at once, leading to agglutination; circulates in plasma
IgE - bind & sensitize histamine containing cells (basophils & mast cells); antigen binding leads to degranulation & inflammation
IgD - serve as B cell receptors
700
Name the cranial nerve noted below & list its target(s) & general function(s):
Abducens Nerve (CN VI) targets the lateral rectus extrinsic eye muscles to abduct the eye
700
Name the structures noted below:
A = lens
B = cornea
700
Describe the functions of each of these cells:
A) hemocytoblast
B) megakaryocyte
c) reticulocyte
A) hemocytoblasts - produce all formed elements of blood (RBC, WBC, platelets)
B) megakaryocyte - releases platelets
C) reticulocyte - name for RBC that has just been released from bone marrow, still unoxygenated
700
Draw a typical IgG & label the 3 binding sites and 2 functional regions.
800
List two specific physiological responses of the body while under each one:
Parasympathetic NS vs. Sympathetic NS
Parasympathetic NS – heart rate reduced (due to vagal tone), pupils constrict, GI motility increases, increased saliva production
Sympathetic NS – heart & respiratory rates increase, bronchioles & pupils dilate, decreased saliva production
800
Name and describe the location, function, & viscosities of the two humors of the eye.
aqueous humor – fluid anterior to lens, circulates, nourishes, cleans, determines IOP
vitreous humor – gel-like substance posterior to lens, supports retina & lens
800
How does the hemocytoblast know which pathway to follow for:
erythropoiesis vs. leukopoiesis vs. thrombopoiesis
EPO (hormone) triggers RBC production (erythropoiesis) when blood oxygen levels are low.
cytokines (chemicals released from WBCs) triggers the production of the appropriate WBC to fight infection or other immune function.
TPO/THPO (hormone) triggers the production of new platelets (thrombopoiesis) when platelet levels are low (thrombopenia).
800
Briefly describe what is meant by artificial active immunity & give one specific example.
Artificial refers to the intentional exposure to antigens. Active means the recipient will actively mount an immune response & leave behind memory.
Ex: vaccinations; these are meant to spare the recipient the signs/symptoms of a particular disease & to help speed up the primary humoral response by providing a large dose of weakened or killed antigen, thus increasing the chances for Th cell interactions/permission, etc.
900
Name the sympathetic NS receptor types that would be found on the: sweat glands
Sympathetic would stimulate sweating under FOF, so alpha-adrenergic receptors (recall: alphas activate)
900
Name two smooth muscles of the eye & describe their unique functions.
Iris – controls amount of light entering eye through pupil
Ciliary body – controls shape of lens to focus
900
Name & briefly describe the functions of each type of leukocyte.
Granulocytes:
neutrophils – bacteria slayers; most common type of WBC
basophils – contain histamine; degranulation triggers inflammation/allergies
eosinophils – scavenge & neutralize histamine (reduces inflammation/allergies); also target parasitic worms
Agranulocytes:
monocytes – motile macrophages
lymphocytes – T-cells (target virally infected or cancerous cells); B-cells (produce antibodies)
900
Describe three specific ways in which primary & secondary humoral responses differ.
Secondary humoral responses are FASTER, because memory B cells made during the first response do not need to wait for permission from helper T cells to make antibodies.
Memory B cells make MORE ANTIBODIES than the original B cells made during the first response.
Antibodies made by memory B cells have a HIGHER AFFINITY for the antigen than the original ones made during the first response.
1000
Explain how beta-blocker drugs work, regarding the specific receptors/neurotransmitters involved.
Beta-blocker drugs bind & block beta1-receptors on the heart to inhibit the typical FOF (sympathetic) effects of EPI.
Patients with irregular heart rates (ex: A-fib), hypertension, anxiety or other conditions may be prescribed these drugs in order to keep the heart rate from getting too high when under stress.
1000
Name & describe the functions/locations of the 2 types of photoreceptors.
Cones – fine/sharp, color focus – concentrated in fovea centralis, fewer in macula lutea & less in periphery
Rods – peripheral vision, sensitive in low light – few in macula lutea, abundant in periphery
1000
A person with blood type O+ will produce which type of antibodies?
anti-A & anti-B antibodies
1000
Define the acronym MHC & describe the two types (i.e., which cells display them, for what purpose?)
MHC = major histocompatibility complex proteins
MHC I - on tissue cells, display antigens to Tc cells to inform them of self vs. non-self proteins being made; if self antigen is presented, cell will be ignored, but if a foreign antigen is presented, the Tc will trigger apoptosis
MHC II - on APCs (e.g., phagocytes, B-cells, etc.); display foreign antigens to Th cells to inform them of invaders somewhere in the body; so Th cells can go give 'permission' to B cells or Tc cells to follow through with the appropriate immune response