Nursing
fundamentals
review
day
fun!!
100

The most important nursing intervention to correct skin dryness is:

A. Consult the dietitian about increasing the patient’s fat intake, and take necessary measures to prevent infection.
B. Ask the physician to refer the patient to a dermatologist, and suggest that the patient wear home-laundered sleepwear.
C. Encourage the patient to increase his fluid intake, use non-irritating soap when bathing the patient, and apply lotion to the involved areas.
D. Avoid bathing the patient until the condition is remedied, and notify the physician.

C. Encourage the patient to increase his fluid intake, use non-irritating soap when bathing the patient, and apply lotion to the involved areas.

100

Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death and dying are:

A. Anger, bargaining, denial, depression, acceptance
B. Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
C. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression acceptance
D. Bargaining, denial, anger, depression, acceptance

C. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression acceptance

100

A patient has just received 30 mg of codeine by mouth for pain. Five minutes later he vomits. What should the nurse do first?

A. Call the physician
B. Remedicate the patient
C. Observe the emesis
D. Explain to the patient that she can do nothing to help him.

C. Observe the emesis.

100

Before administering the evening dose of a prescribed medication, the nurse on the evening shift finds an unlabeled, filled syringe in the patient’s medication drawer. What should the nurse in charge do?

A. Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error.
B. Obtain a label for the syringe from the pharmacy.
C. Use the syringe because it looks like it contains the same medication the nurse was prepared to give.
D. Call the day nurse to verify the contents of the syringe.

A. Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error.

100

The nurse uses a stethoscope to auscultate a male patient’s chest. Which statement about a stethoscope with a bell and diaphragm is true?

A. The bell detects high-pitched sounds best.
B. The diaphragm detects high-pitched sounds best.
C. The bell detects thrills best.
D. The diaphragm detects low-pitched sounds best.

B. The diaphragm detects high-pitched sounds best.

200

Times when medication reconciliation should be done. 

Admission, Transfer, and Discharge

200

What is most important when taking a medication history?

A. allergies

B. Diet

C. Bowel movement frequency

D. Home laxative use

A. allergies

200

True or False:

Insulin can be given in a syringe labeled with "mL" if the nurse converts units to "mL".

False. Insulin is always given in a syringe that is labeled units. Units can NOT be converted to mL.

200

A female patient is being discharged after cataract surgery. After providing medication teaching, the nurse asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The nurse is performing which professional role?

A. Manager
B. Educator
C. Caregiver
D. Patient advocate

B. Educator

200

An employer establishes a physical exercise area in the workplace and encourages all employees to use it. This is an example of which level of health promotion?

A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Passive prevention

A. Primary prevention

Wrong answers:
Option B: Secondary prevention focuses on patients who have health problems and are at risk for developing complications.
Option C: Tertiary prevention enables patients to gain health from others’ activities without doing anything themselves.
Option D: Prevention, as it relates to health, is really about avoiding disease before it starts. It has been defined as the plans for, and the measures taken, to prevent the onset of a disease or other health problem before the occurrence of the undesirable health event.

300

When does discharge planning start?

Admission

300

A nurse caring for a patient with an infectious disease who requires airborne isolation. This infection would include:

A. influenza

B. mycoplasm pnuemonia

C. Tuberculosis

D. MRSA

C. Tuberculosis

300

The nurse is assessing a postoperative adult patient. Which of the following should the nurse document as subjective data?

A. Vital signs
B. Laboratory test result
C. Patient’s description of pain
D. Electrocardiographic (ECG) waveforms

C. Patient’s description of pain

300

A female patient exhibits signs of heightened anxiety. Which response by the nurse is most likely to reduce the patient’s anxiety?

A. “Everything will be fine. Don’t worry.”
B. “Read this manual and then ask me any questions you may have.”
C. “Why don’t you listen to the radio?”
D. “Let’s talk about what’s bothering you.”

D. “Let’s talk about what’s bothering you.”

300

Which nursing action is essential when providing continuous enteral feeding?

A. Elevating the head of the bed.
B. Positioning the patient on the left side.
C. Warming the formula before administering it.
 D. Hanging a full day’s worth of formula at one time.

A. Elevating the head of the bed.

400

How should goals be written with the patient and family?

SMART goals, be reachable for patient

Done with patient and family

400

Which is the correct procedure for collecting a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity testing?

A. Have the patient place the specimen in a container and enclose the container in a plastic bag.
B. Have the patient expectorate the sputum while the nurse holds the container.
C. Have the patient expectorate the sputum into a sterile container.
D. Offer the patient an antiseptic mouthwash just before he expectorate the sputum.

C. Have the patient expectorate the sputum into a sterile container

400

Where do you observe for jaundice?

skin, sclera

400

A patient is in the bathroom when the nurse enters to give a prescribed medication. What should the nurse in charge do?

A. Leave the medication at the patient’s bedside.
B. Tell the patient to be sure to take the medication. And then leave it at the bedside.
C. Return shortly to the patient’s room and remain there until the patient takes the medication.
D. Wait for the patient to return to bed, and then leave the medication at the bedside.

C. Return shortly to the patient’s room and remain there until the patient takes the medication.

400

Define a stage 4 pressure ulcer. 

Wound extending full thickness where muscle, bone, or fascia is present. 

500

Purpose of continuity of care

smooth transitions for patient care between settings

500

What is the right assessment to perform for a patient prior to receiving insulin?

A. Full set of vitals

B. orientation status

C. Blood Sugar

D. determine if the patient has snacks available

500

A female patient who speaks a little English has emergency gallbladder surgery, during discharge preparation, which nursing action would best help this patient understand wound care instruction?

A. Asking frequently if the patient understands the instruction.
B. Asking an interpreter to replay the instructions to the patient.
C. Writing out the instructions and having a family member read them to the patient.
D. Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient return the demonstration.

D. Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient return the demonstration

Wrong answers:
Option A: Patients may claim to understand discharge instruction when they do not.
Option B: An interpreter of family members may communicate verbal or written instructions inaccurately.
Option C: Internet-based apps for smartphones and tablets help medical professionals interpret information quickly so they can be used in emergency settings.

500
Define Tertiary Prevention

Preventing disease that is permanent from getting worse. 

500
Define Stage 1 pressure ulcer. 

Redness that is nonblanchable. Skin still remains intact. 

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