Board Jeopardy! Round 2

Ocular Disease

100

A patient is concerned with an acute reduction of the acuity in the right eye. You correctly diagnose central serous retinopathy, and confirm your diagnosis with an optical coherence tomography (OCT). What is the standard treatment protocol?
A. Refer for laser treatment of the retina
B. Refer for intravitreal steroid injection
C. Monitor monthly for resolution
D. Refer for cryotherapy of the retina
E. Treat the patient with prism as they are likely to develop diplopia

C. Monitor monthly for resolution

200

A central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) causes tremendous damage to the retina. How will the electroretinogram (ERG) of a person who has suffered a CRAO be affected?
A. The a-wave will disappear while the b-wave will remain
B. The a-wave will remain while the b-wave will disappear
C. Both the a-wave and the b-wave will disappear
D. Both the a-wave and the b-wave will remain

B. The a-wave will remain while the b-wave will disappear

300

According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker method of classification, hypertensive retinopathy is categorized as stage four when which ocular sign is present?
A. Flame hemorrhages
B. Swelling of the optic disc
C. Retinal edema
D. Hard exudates in a star configuration

B. Swelling of the optic disc

400

Which of the following types of scleritis presents without ocular inflammation, has a low risk for perforation, and does not typically result in pain or decreased visual acuity?
A. Granulomatous necrotizing scleritis
B. Vaso-occlusive necrotizing scleritis
C. Anterior non-necrotizing diffuse scleritis
D. Posterior scleritis
E. Nodular scleritis
F. Scleromalacia perforans

F. Scleromalacia perforans

500

A 10-year old child presents in your office with a unilateral follicular conjunctivitis along with ipsilateral adenopathy. You correctly diagnose oculoglandular syndrome. Because it is the most common etiology, which of the following causes are you MOST likely to suspect?
A. Cat-scratch disease
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Coccidioidomycosis
D. Measles
E. Diabetes
Double money: name 4 oculoglandular syndromes

A. Cat-scratch disease Causes include but are not limited to: cat-scratch disease, tularemia, syphilis, tuberculosis, sprotrichosis, mononucleosis, coccidioidomycosis, sarcoidosis, Hansen's disease, mumps, actinomycosis, Listeria and Herpes simplex.

Ocular Anatomy/Physio

100

Which two layers of the iris are derived from mesoderm?
A. The posterior pigmented epithelium and the anterior limiting layer
B. The stroma and the anterior epithelium
C. The anterior limiting layer and the stroma
D. The epithelium and the posterior pigmented epithelium
E. The stroma and the posterior pigmented epithelium

B. The stroma and the anterior epithelium

200

Midget ganglion cells receive information pre-synaptically from which cells?
A. Rod bipolar cells
B. Midget bipolar cells
C. Flat bipolar cells
D. Horizontal bipolar cells

B. Midget bipolar cells

300

Which of the following types of congenital cataracts are characteristic of galactosemia?
A. Blue dot (Cerulean) opacities
B. Oil droplet opacities
C. Christmas tree cataracts
D. Sunflower cataracts

B. Oil droplet opacities

400

Which of the following is the correct pathway for the drainage of tears through the nasolacrimal drainage system?
A. Nasolacrimal duct, lacrimal sac, valve of Hasner, lacrimal canaliculus, ampulla, lacrimal punctum
B. Lacrimal punctum, lacrimal canaliculus, ampulla, valve of Hasner, nasolacrimal duct, lacrimal sac
C. Lacrimal punctum, lacrimal canaliculus, ampulla, lacrimal sac, nasolacrimal duct, valve of Hasner
D. Lacrimal sac, lacrimal punctum, lacrimal canaliculus, ampulla, nasolacrimal duct, valve of Hasner

C. Lacrimal punctum, lacrimal canaliculus, ampulla, lacrimal sac, nasolacrimal duct, valve of Hasner

500

A 66 year-old male presents with a facial nerve palsy resulting in weakness of both the upper and lower portions of the right side of his face. Which of the following BEST describes the characteristics of the involved motor neuron?
A. Right lower motor neuron
B. Left lower motor neuron
C. Left upper motor neuron
D. Right upper motor neuron

A. Right lower motor neuron

Optics/CL/LV

100

Which of the following BEST describes the definition of irregular astigmatism?
A. The principal meridians of the cornea are not perpendicular to each other
B. The axis of astigmatism is located along the 90 degree meridian
C. The principal meridians of the cornea are located 90 degrees apart
D. The axis of astigmatism is located along an oblique axis

A. The principal meridians of the cornea are not perpendicular to each other

200

Which of the following will occur if you increase the water content of a soft contact lens?
A. The tendency of lens deposits will decrease
B. The patient will report an increase in dry eye symptoms
C. The oxygen permeability will decrease
D. The lens durability will increase

B. The patient will report an increase in dry eye symptoms

300

You are fitting a toric soft contact lens to your patient's right eye. The patient's manifest refraction is -2.00 -1.50 X 095. You apply a -1.75 -1.25 X 085 diagnostic toric soft contact lens. It fits well, and the prism base down marking consistently locates halfway between the 6 o'clock and 7 o'clock hours. What axis should you order?
A. 70 degrees
B. 95 degrees
C. 100 degrees
D. 80 degrees
E. 110 degrees

E. 110 degrees

400

A patient views a bichrome visual acuity chart with no lenses before his eyes. With the patient's left eye occluded, he reports that the letters on the red side of the chart appear blacker and darker. With his right eye occluded, the letters on the green side appear blacker and darker. Given these observations and assuming that accommodation is at rest, what would likely be the refractive condition of the right eye and left eye respectively?
A. Hyperopia and myopia
B. Myopia and myopia
C. Myopia and hyperopia
D. Hyperopia and emmetropia
E. Myopia and emmetropia
F. Emmetropia and hyperopia

C. Myopia and hyperopia

500

A patient is seen at your office complaining of distance blur with his glasses. With his current prescription of -1.25 D in place, you determine that his far point is 50 cm from the spectacle plane for his left eye. Given this information, which of the following is the MOST appropriate spectacle prescription to obtain a clear retinal image when an object is viewed at optical infinity (rounded to the nearest 0.25 D)?
A. +0.75 D
B. -2.00 D
C. -0.75 D
D. -1.25 D
E. -3.25 D

E. -3.25 D

Pharm

100

Which of the following drugs decrease intraocular pressure by increasing uveoscleral outflow?
A. Dorzolamide
B. Timolol
C. Brinzolamide
D. Pilocarpine
E. Brimonidine

E. Brimonidine Uveoscleral pathway is pressure INDEPENDENT :)

200

Which of the following antibiotics is classified as a macrolide?
A. Tobramycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Erythromycin
D. Amoxicillin

C. Erythromycin

300

Which of the following BEST describes the reasoning for the need to taper topical ocular corticosteroids?
A. Decrease the risk of posterior subcapsular cataract formation
B. Minimize the risk of developing steroid-induced elevation of IOP
C. Avoid signs and symptoms of rebound ocular inflammation
D. Minimize risk of adrenal insufficiency due to decreased production of natural cortisol
E. Prevent possible secondary ocular infections

C. Avoid signs and symptoms of rebound ocular inflammation

400

Which of the following medications should be taken with an empty stomach?
A. Tetracycline
B. Cephalexin (Keflex®)
C. Amoxicillin with clavulanate (Augmentin®)
D. Doxycycline

A. Tetracycline

500

What is the total cumulative dosage of chloroquine that is MOST commonly associated with retinal toxicity?
A. 1500 grams
B. 4,000 grams
C. 300 grams
D. 1,000 grams
E. 100 grams

C. 300 grams

Non Big 8

100

A chin fissure is a dominant trait. If a father who is homozygous-dominant for this trait and a mother who is homozygous-recessive for this trait mate, what are the chances that their first child will have a chin fissure?
A. 100%
B. 0%
C. 75%
D. 25%
E. 50%

A. 100%

200

A constant ringing of the ears is known as which of the following terms?
A. Malleus
B. Otitis media
C. Sinusitis
D. Tinnitus

D. Tinnitus

300

What is the net overall moles of ATP produced by the electron transport chain (i.e. not including glycolysis)?
A. 30 moles of ATP
B. 6 moles of ATP
C. 2 moles of ATP
D. 34 moles of ATP
E. 38 moles of ATP

D. 34 moles of ATP

400

What type of agar is commonly used to culture fungi?
A. Cetrimide agar
B. Sabouraud's agar
C. Hay infusion agar
D. Blood agar plate
E. Thayer-Martin agar

B. Sabouraud's agar

500

What separation distance will make the combination of a +3.00 and a +10.00 thin lens afocal?
A. 2.3 cm
B. 17 cm
C. 43 cm
D. 0.43 cm
E. 1.7 cm
F. 23 cm

C. 43 cm De = D1 + D2 - (t/n) x D1D2