Chemistry
Body Fluids/heme
Immunology
Blood Bank
Micro/parasitology
100

The lipoprotein that transports cholesterol away from the tissues is: 

A. HDL

B. IDL

C. LDL

D. VLDL

(Pg.115, q.48)

A. HDL

100

The yellow color of urine is primarily due to the presence of:

A. urochrome

B. melanin

C. bilirubin

D. stercobilin

 (pg. 200)

A. Urochrome

100

Cells that are precursors of plasma cells and also produce immunoglobulins are: 

A. macrophages

B. B lymphocytes

C. T lymphocytes

D. monocytes

(Pg.602, q.10)

B. B lymphocytes

100

The purpose of testing with anti-A,B is to detect: 

A. anti-A1

B. anti-A2

C. subgroups of A

D. subgroups of O 

(Pg. 43, q.280)

C. subgroups of A

100

A light-yellow colony from a skin lesion grows aerobically and tests as catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. The organism stains as gram-positive cocci in clusters. The organism is modified oxidase-positive, bacitracin (0.04U) susceptible and resistant to lysoaphin. What is the identification of this organism? 

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Micrococcus luteus

C. Staphylococcus epidermidis

D. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

(Pg.446, q.170)

B. Micrococcus luteus

200

Which of the following lipid results would be expected to be falsely elevated on a serum specimen from a non-fasting patient?

A. cholesterol

B. triglyceride

C. HDL

D. LDL

 (Pg.115, q.45)

B. triglyceride

200

Which of the following is used for staining reticulocytes? 

A. Giemsa stain

B. Wright stain

C. new methylene blue

D. Prussian blue 

(pg. 311)

C. new methylene blue

200

Rheumatoid factor consists of antibodies that bind the: 

A. Fc portion of the IgG molecule

B. Fab portion of the IgG molecule

C. Fc portion of the IgM molecule

D. Fab portion of the IgM molecule

(Pg.629, q.205) 

A. Fc portion of the IgG molecule

200

Which of the following might cause a false-negative indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)? 

A. over-reading

B. IgG-coated screening cells

C. addition of an extra drop of serum

D. too heavy a cell suspension

(Pg.47, q.302)

D. too heavy a cell suspension

200

The specimen of choice for detection of RSV is:

A. nasopharyngeal aspirate

B. cough plate

C. expectorated sputum

D. throat swab

 (Pg. 463, q.279) 

A. Nasopharyngeal aspirate

300

At midmorning, blood glucose levels fall and stimulate the secretion of which hormone? 

A. cortisol

B. epinephrine

C. glucagon

D. insuline 

(Pg.113, q.34)

C. glucagon

300

Automated hematology analyzers calculate the hematocrit using which of the following parameters? 

A. MCV and RBC

B. MCH and RBC

C. HGB and RBC

D. MCV and MCHC

 (pg. 328)

A. MVC and RBC

300

The immunoglobulin isotype associated with immediate hypersensitivity or atopic reactions is?

A. IgA

B. IgM

C. IgD

D. IgE

 (Pg.606, q.44)

D. IgE

300

The rosette test will detect a fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) as small as: 

A. 10 mL

B. 15 mL

C. 20 mL

D. 30 mL

Pg.31, q.213)

A. 10mL

300

Vibrio parahaemolyticus is best isolated from feces on:

A. eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar

B. Hektoen enteric (HE) agar

C. Salmonella-Shigella (SS) agar

D. thiosulfate citrate bile salts (TCBS) agar

 (Pg.416, q.20)

D. thiosulfate citrate bile salts agar (TCBS)

400

The creatinine clearance (mL/min) is equal to: 

A. urinary creatinine (mg/L)/[volume of urine (mL/min) x plasma creatinine (mg/L)]

B. [urinary creatinine (mg/L) x volume (mL/min)]/plasma creatinine (mg/L)

C. urinary creatinine (mg/L)/[volume of urine (mL/hour) x plasma creatinine (mg/L)]

D. [urinary creatinine (mg/L) x volume (mL/hour)]/plasma creatinine (mg/L)

(Pg. 143, q.210)

[urinary creatinine (mg/L) x volume (mL/min) / plasma creatinine(mg/L)

400

Spontaneous bleeding occurs when the platelet count is: 

A. <10 x 10^3/uL 

B. <20 x 10^3/uL 

C. <50 x 10^3/uL 

D. <100 x 10^3/uL 

(Pg.380, q.108)

B. <20x10^3/uL

400

What kind of antigen-antibody reaction would be expected if soluble antigen is added to homologous antibody? 

A. precipitation

B. agglutination

C. complement fixation

D. hemagglutination

(Pg.613, q.85)

A. precipitation 

400

Polyspecific reagents used in the direct antiglobulin test should have specificity for: 

A. IgG and IgA

B. IgG and C3d

C. IgM and IgA

D. IgM and C3d

(Pg.46, q.299)

B. IgG and C3d

400

What is the animal reservoir of West Nile Virus?

A. mice

B. rats

C. domestic cats

D. birds (Pg.464, q.287)

D. birds

500

A 22-year-old patient has trace urinary protein by dipstick method and a urine albumin excretion rate of 50ug/min (normal is <20). this correlates with the term:

A. hematuria

B. massive proteinuria

C. microalbuminuria/albuminuria

D. oliguria

 (Pg. 145, q.223)

C. microalbuminuria/albuminuria

500

What is the MCHC if the HCT is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 * 10^6/uL (2.4 * 10^12/L) and the HGB is 5 g/dL (50 g/L)?

A. 21%

B. 25%

C. 30%

D. 34%

 (Pg.329, q.290)

B. 25%

500

Anti-nuclear antibody tests are performed to help diagnose: 

A. acute leukemia

B. lupus erythematosus

C. hemolytic anemia

D. Crohn disease

(Pg.626, q.183) 

V. lupus erythematosus 

500

Plasma neutralization is best used to verify which of the following antibodies? 

A. anti-Lub 

B. anti-M

C. anti-Ch/Rg

D. anti-V

(Pg.51, q.321)

C. Anti-Ch/Rg

500

The persistence of which marker is the best evidence of chronic HBV infection? 

A. HBeAg

B. HBsAg

C. anti-HBe

D. anti-HBs

(Pg.464, q.293)

B. HBsAg

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