Cardiac Output
Preload
Afterload
Vasoactive Medications
Kidney Injury
100

What is the formula for cardiac output (CO)?

A. CO = SV × HR
B. CO = MAP ÷ SVR
C. CO = HR ÷ SV
D. CO = BP × HR

Answer: A. CO = SV × HR

Rationale: Cardiac output is determined by stroke volume × heart rate.

100

Which best describes preload?

A. The pressure the heart must pump against to eject blood
B. The volume of blood returning to the heart that stretches the ventricles before contraction
C. The force of the heart’s contraction
D. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute

Answer: B. The volume of blood returning to the heart that stretches the ventricles before contraction

100

The nurse reviews a patient’s hemodynamic values: SVR is elevated. Which interpretation is correct?

A. Normal afterload
B. Low afterload
C. High afterload
D. Inconclusive without cardiac output

Answer: C. High afterload

Rationale: A high SVR indicates systemic vasoconstriction → high afterload, often seen in hypertension or vasopressor use.

100

A patient in septic shock is started on norepinephrine. Which receptor action primarily explains its therapeutic effect?

A. β2 stimulation → bronchodilation
B. β1 stimulation → increased contractility and HR
C. α1 stimulation → vasoconstriction, ↑ SVR
D. Dopamine receptor stimulation → renal perfusion

Answer: C. α1 stimulation → vasoconstriction, ↑ SVR

Rationale: Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock. It strongly stimulates α1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction and increased afterload, improving MAP. It has some β1 effects, but α1 predominates.

100

A patient with hypovolemic shock develops AKI. The nurse recognizes this as which type of kidney injury?

A. Intrarenal
B. Postrenal
C. Prerenal
D. Chronic renal failure

Answer: C. Prerenal

Rationale: Hypoperfusion (from shock, dehydration, hemorrhage) leads to prerenal AKI. Intrarenal (A) is due to direct renal parenchymal damage. Postrenal (B) is from obstruction. Chronic renal failure (D) is gradual and progressive.

200

Which normal range reflects cardiac output in a healthy adult?

A. 1–2 L/min
B. 2–3 L/min
C. 4–6 L/min
D. 7–9 L/min

Answer: C. 4–6 L/min

Rationale: Normal CO is 4–6 L/min; below this suggests poor perfusion.

200

Which condition most likely contributes to increased preload?

A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Mitral valve stenosis
C. Dehydration
D. Tachycardia

Answer: B. Mitral valve stenosis

Rationale: Valve stenosis and fluid overload lead to increased filling pressures (↑ preload). Hypovolemia and dehydration (A, C) decrease preload. Tachycardia (D) reduces filling time, lowering preload.

200

Which condition most likely contributes to decreased afterload?

A. Septic shock
B. Systemic hypertension
C. Hypothermia
D. Aortic stenosis

Answer: A. Septic shock

Rationale: Septic shock causes profound vasodilation, lowering afterload. Hypertension (B), hypothermia (C), and aortic stenosis (D) increase afterload.

200

A patient on dobutamine for cardiogenic shock demonstrates improved cardiac output but persistent hypotension. Which drug would most likely be added?

A. Phenylephrine
B. Vasopressin
C. Nicardipine
D. Sildenafil

Answer: B. Vasopressin

Rationale: Dobutamine improves contractility but can lower BP due to vasodilation. Vasopressin, a pure vasoconstrictor (not adrenergic), can be added to improve MAP. Phenylephrine (A) is pure α1 but may reduce stroke volume. Nicardipine (C) and sildenafil (D) lower afterload/PVR, worsening hypotension.

200

The nurse reviews labs for a patient with AKI: BUN 55 mg/dL, creatinine 3.2 mg/dL, potassium 6.0 mEq/L. Which intervention is priority?

A. Administer IV calcium gluconate
B. Restrict dietary protein
C. Insert Foley catheter
D. Prepare patient for dialysis education

Answer: A. Administer IV calcium gluconate

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is life-threatening in AKI. IV calcium gluconate stabilizes cardiac membranes and prevents arrhythmias. Protein restriction (B) and dialysis (D) may be needed later. Foley catheter (C) addresses obstruction, not hyperkalemia.

300

If preload decreases, what happens to cardiac output?

A. CO increases
B. CO decreases
C. CO stays the same
D. CO doubles

Answer: B. CO decreases

Rationale: Less preload = less ventricular filling = lower stroke volume = lower CO.

300

A patient with CVP of 15 mmHg is restless, has crackles in lung bases, and reports dyspnea. Which nursing intervention is priority?

A. Administer prescribed IV diuretic
B. Increase IV fluid rate
C. Place patient supine with legs elevated
D. Administer albumin infusion

Answer: A. Administer prescribed IV diuretic

Rationale: Elevated CVP (normal 2–6) = high preload/volume overload → pulmonary congestion. Diuretics reduce intravascular volume and preload. Increasing fluids (B, D) worsens overload. Supine positioning (C) worsens dyspnea.

300

A patient with cardiogenic shock has an elevated SVR (systemic vascular resistance). Which medication order would the nurse anticipate?

A. Norepinephrine
B. Nicardipine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Vasopressin

Answer: B. Nicardipine

Rationale: Nicardipine (a calcium channel blocker) causes systemic vasodilation, lowering afterload. The others (A, C, D) are vasoconstrictors that would increase afterload further.

300

The nurse reviews a patient’s orders: milrinone infusion for advanced heart failure. Which finding would require the nurse to question continuing therapy?

A. Ejection fraction 15%
B. Frequent PVCs on telemetry
C. Cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m²
D. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure 20 mmHg

Answer: B. Frequent PVCs on telemetry

Rationale: Milrinone (a PDE inhibitor) improves contractility and causes vasodilation but increases risk of ventricular dysrhythmias. PVCs indicate arrhythmic instability. Low EF and CI (A, C) are indications, and elevated PAWP (D) may improve with therapy.

300

A patient with suspected postrenal AKI reports flank pain and has a bladder scan showing 900 mL of urine. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

A. Administer IV furosemide
B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
C. Prepare for renal biopsy
D. Begin fluid restriction

Answer: B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter

Rationale: Postrenal AKI is due to obstruction (e.g., BPH, stones, strictures). Foley catheter insertion relieves obstruction and restores flow. Diuretics (A) are ineffective in obstruction. Biopsy (C) is for intrarenal causes. Fluid restriction (D) does not address obstruction.

400

Which medication increases cardiac output by improving contractility?

A. Norepinephrine
B. Dobutamine
C. Nicardipine
D. Vasopressin

Answer: B. Dobutamine

Rationale: Dobutamine is a positive inotrope (β1 agonist) → ↑ contractility → ↑ CO.

400

A patient in hypovolemic shock has CVP = 1 mmHg and MAP = 60 mmHg. Which order should the nurse question?

A. Administer normal saline bolus
B. Administer norepinephrine infusion
C. Elevate lower extremities
D. Insert two large-bore IV catheters

Answer: B. Administer norepinephrine infusion

Rationale: In hypovolemia, fluids must be replaced before vasopressors. Pressors on an empty tank worsen tissue perfusion. Fluids (A), positioning (C), and IV access (D) are appropriate.

400

A patient has pulmonary hypertension with a high PVR = 400 dynes/sec/cm⁵ (normal = 100–250). Which medication would most likely be used?

A. Sildenafil
B. Norepinephrine
C. Vasopressin
D. Phenylephrine

Answer: A. Sildenafil

Rationale: Sildenafil (Revatio) is a PDE-5 inhibitor that selectively causes pulmonary vasodilation, lowering PVR. The others are systemic vasoconstrictors that would worsen pulmonary pressures.

400

Which medication would be most appropriate for a patient with hypertensive emergency and an SVR of 2000?

A. Norepinephrine
B. Nicardipine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Vasopressin

Answer: B. Nicardipine

Rationale: Nicardipine (a calcium channel blocker) causes systemic vasodilation, lowering SVR in hypertensive crises. Norepinephrine, phenylephrine, and vasopressin all increase afterload, which is contraindicated.

400

Which nursing intervention is most important for a patient receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)?

A. Monitor hourly fluid balance and net ultrafiltration
B. Restrict protein intake to prevent waste buildup
C. Flush dialysis catheter with heparin every 4 hours
D. Encourage ambulation during CRRT therapy

Answer: A. Monitor hourly fluid balance and net ultrafiltration

Rationale: CRRT requires hourly monitoring of fluid removal to avoid hemodynamic instability. Protein restriction (B) is less strict with CRRT since waste is continuously removed. Flushing dialysis catheters (C) is contraindicated—done by dialysis staff. Ambulation (D) is not possible during CRRT.

500

A patient with low cardiac output is most likely to have which signs?

A. Warm skin, bounding pulses, high urine output
B. Hypertension, tachycardia, flushed skin
C. Cool clammy skin, hypotension, low urine output
D. Normal BP, warm extremities, clear lungs

Answer: C. Cool clammy skin, hypotension, low urine output

Rationale: Low CO = poor perfusion → cool skin, ↓ BP, ↓ urine output.

500

A patient has PAWP of 20 mmHg after aggressive fluid resuscitation. The provider decreases IV fluids and prescribes nitroglycerin. The nurse recognizes this order will:

A. Increase preload by venous constriction
B. Decrease preload by venous dilation
C. Increase contractility via β1 stimulation
D. Decrease afterload by arterial constriction

Answer: B. Decrease preload by venous dilation

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a venous vasodilator → promotes pooling in veins, reducing venous return and preload. It does not increase preload (A), contractility (C), or afterload (D).

500

A patient with severe aortic stenosis has low cardiac output. Which hemodynamic principle best explains this finding?

A. Increased preload reduces cardiac filling
B. Increased afterload reduces left ventricular ejection
C. Decreased contractility lowers stroke volume
D. Decreased afterload reduces systemic perfusion

Answer: B. Increased afterload reduces left ventricular ejection

Rationale: Aortic stenosis creates an outflow obstruction, raising LV afterload. This increases myocardial workload and reduces stroke volume and cardiac output.

500

A patient with pulmonary hypertension is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which nursing intervention is most critical?

A. Monitor for rebound hypertension if infusion is stopped
B. Ensure continuous infusion without interruption
C. Flush IV tubing with saline after each use
D. Administer via central line only to prevent irritation

Answer: B. Ensure continuous infusion without interruption

Rationale: Epoprostenol has a half-life of ~6 minutes. Any interruption → life-threatening rebound pulmonary hypertension. While central line use (D) is recommended, the absolute priority is preventing interruption (B).

500

A patient with CKD is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which lab finding requires immediate intervention before treatment?

A. Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
B. Potassium 6.5 mEq/L
C. Sodium 132 mEq/L
D. BUN 80 mg/dL

Answer: B. Potassium 6.5 mEq/L

Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia (>6.0) is a life-threatening emergency and must be addressed immediately to prevent fatal arrhythmias. Anemia (A), mild hyponatremia (C), and elevated BUN (D) are expected findings in CKD.

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