Chemotherapy
Oncologic Emergencies
Radiation
BRCA 1 & 2
MISC/Evolve Questions
100

What are the 3 stages of cancer?

1) Initiation: mutation in cell's genetic structure

2) Promotion: reversible proliferation of the altered cells

3) Progression: increased growth rate of the tumor, increased invasiveness, and metastasis

100

What is SIADH?

What is the action?

Too much ADH from tumor leads to excessive hyponatremia

Restore sodium level

100

When and where do skin reactions occur?

Develops 1-24 hours after treatment

Only occur locally in the treatment field; areas of skinfolds or where skin is subjected to pressure

100

What age should women start getting annual mammograms?

40 years old

100

What are the common sites of metastasis?

Lungs

Liver

Bone

Brain

Adrenal glands

200

Side effects of chemotherapy

Delayed effects: Bone marrow suppression, alopecia, N/V, mucositis, skin rashes, altered bowel function, cumulative neurotoxicities

200

What is pericardial effusion and neoplastic cardiac tamponade?

fluid in pericardium causing pressure on the heart

200

What are some nursing implications for skin reactions caused by radiation?

Lubricate dry skin w/ nonirritating lotion or aloe vera, prevent infection, facilitate wound healing, protect irritated skin temp, avoid constricting garments, harsh chemicals, and deodorants, help pt deal with hair loss

Do NOT uses heating pads, ice, and hot water bottles

200

What are BRCA 1 and BRCA 2?

Alterations in these genes can increase a person's risk for...

Tumor suppressor genes that regulate cell growth and prevent cells from going through the cell cycle, produce proteins that help repair damaged DNA

Breast, ovarian, and pancreatic cancer

200

A patient has recently been diagnosed with stage II cervical cancer. Which statement by the nurse best explains the diagnosis?

A) “The cancer is found at the point of origin only.”

B) “Tumor cells have been identified in the cervical region.”

C) “The cancer has been identified in the cervix and the liver.”

D) “Your cancer was identified in the cervix and has limited local spread.”

D) “Your cancer was identified in the cervix and has limited local spread.”

Stage II cancer is associated with limited local spread. Stage 0 denotes cancer in situ or at the point of origin only; stage I denotes tumor limited to the tissue of origin with localized tumor growth. Stage III denotes extensive local and regional spread. Stage IV denotes metastasis such as to the liver.

300
What is the most common/deadly side effect of chemo?

Nursing management for this side effect...

Bone marrow suppression (myelosuppression)

Biggest concern is infection, so monitor fever of 100.4 or higher

Lowest blood cell counts (nadir) often occur 7-10 days after starting therapy

300

What is tumor lysis syndrome and how does it present?

Metabolic complication characterized by rapid release of intracellular components in response to chemo/radiation

Presents w/ hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia, weakness/muscle cramps, N/V

300

What is internal radiation called and what is it?

Brachytherapy

implantation or insertion of radioactive materials into or near the tumor, minimal exposure to healthy tissue

300

How many copies of the BRCA gene does everyone have?

2 copies, one from each parent

300


Question 3 of 26


The patient is receiving immunotherapy and targeted therapy for ovarian cancer. What medication would the nurse expect to administer before therapy to combat the most common side effects of these therapies?

A) Morphine sulfate
B) Ibuprofen (Advil)
C) Ondansetron (Zofran)
D) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)


D) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

Acetaminophen is administered before therapy and every 4 hours to prevent or decrease the intensity of the severe flu-like symptoms, especially with interferon which is frequently used for ovarian cancer. Morphine sulfate and ibuprofen will not decrease flu-like symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic but is not used first to combat flu-like symptoms such as headache, fever, chills, and myalgias.

400

Nursing management for anorexia

Small, frequent, high protein/caloric meals (ex: skim milk powder, cheese, honey, brown sugar, peanut butter)

Monitor carefully to avoid weight loss (weigh twice weekly), involve dietician before treatment

400

What is superior vena cava syndrome?

Obstruction of venous system with increased venous pressure and stasis

Facial and neck edema with slow progression to respiratory distress

400

What is ALARA?

How should healthcare professionals approach treating a pt with brachytherapy?

As low as reasonably achievable

Limit the amount of time near pts being treated to protect self

Time, distance, and shielding is essential to keep healthcare professionals safe from internal source of radiation 

400

Risk factors for breast cancer

Early menarche or late menopause (the longer you bleed, the higher your risk)

Nulliparity, first child born after 30, breast cancer hx, high doses radiation exposure to chest, and previous cancer of breast, uterus, or ovaries

400

What is the difference between benign vs malignant?

Main difference is malignant tumor cells invade and metastasize

Benign: encapsulated, normally differentiated cells, does NOT metastasize

Malignant: rarely encapsulated, poorly differentiated cells, capable of metastasis

500

What is an extravasation injury?

What causes it?

What is the immediate action to take if it occurs?

Infiltration of drugs into tissues surrounding the infusion site

It is d/t chemo, because many chemo drugs may be irritants or vesicants that can damage the vein

Stop the infusion immediately!

500

What is hypercalcemia and its treatment?

What is hyperuricemia and how to prevent it?

Hypercalcemia: fatigue, muscle weakness, polyuria, constipation, progresses to coma and seizures

- Tx: restore fluids with IV saline, loop diuretics

Hyperuricemia: occurs with rapid necrosis of tumor cells as with chemo, can result in renal damage and failure

- Prevention: alopurinol (zyloprim)

500

Warning/caution signs of cancer

Change in bowel or bladder habits

Sore that does not heal

Unusual bleeding or discharge from any body orifice

Thickening or a lump in the breast or elsewhere

Indigestion or difficulty swallowing

Obvious change in a wart or mole

Nagging cough or hoarseness

500

Diagnosis of breast cancer

Sentinel lymph node

- First node confronted as tumor cell spreads through the lymphatic system

Biopsy is the gold standard, it can help determine extent of cancer and is usually the first step

500

Patients may reduce the risk of developing cancer using health promotion strategies. Identify modifiable strategies which can reduce the risk of developing cancer. (SATA)

A) Stop smoking

B) Use sunscreen

C) Limit alcohol us

D) Undergo genetic testing

E) Maintain a healthy weight

F) Receive appropriate immunizations

A) Stop smoking

B) Use sunscreen

C) Limit alcohol use

E) Maintain a healthy weight

F) Receive appropriate immunizations

Changing a person’s lifestyle can limit cancer promotors, which is key in cancer prevention. Immunizations such as human papilloma virus (HPV) can prevent cervical cancer. Use of sunscreen (SPF 15 or greater) can prevent cell damage and development of skin cancer. Smoking can initiate or promote cancer development. Alcohol use combined with smoking can promote esophageal and bladder cancers. Management of weight can reduce the risk of cancer. Genetic testing (i.e., APC gene) identifies the predisposition to some cancers but is not modifiable.

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