Definitions
Compounding
Infections Disease
Immunizations
Misc Questions
100

LASA 

Look-Alike Sound-Alike

100

USP 795

What is the default BUD for a water-containing oral nonsterile preparation stored in a refrigerator?

A. 7 days

B. 14 days

C. 30 days

D. 6 months

14 days

100

Which antibiotic is contraindicated in children <8 years due to tooth discoloration?
A. Doxycycline
B. Amoxicillin
C. Azithromycin
D. Clindamycin

Doxycycline

100
  1. Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
    • A. Hepatitis B
    • B. Varicella
    • C. Tdap
    • D. Pneumococcal

Varicella

100
  1. A pharmacist receives a prescription for warfarin 5 mg daily. What is the most critical counseling point to emphasize?
    • A) Take with food to enhance absorption.
    • B) Monitor for signs of bleeding.
    • C) Avoid taking with other NSAIDs.
    • D) Store at room temperature.

Monitor for signs of bleeding.

200

ADE

Adverse Drug Event

Harmful events caused by medication use, including side effects, allergic reactions, or errors

200

USP 797

How often is environmental monitoring required for high-risk sterile compounding?

A. Daily

B. Weekly

C. Monthly

 D. Annually

Weekly

200

Which antibiotic is first-line for Clostridioides difficile infection?
A. Vancomycin (oral)
B. Aztreonam
C. Cefepime
D. Tetracycline

Vancomycin (oral)

200
  1. Which vaccine is recommended for a pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation?
    • A. MMR
    • B. Tdap
    • C. Varicella
    • D. Zostavax

Tdap

200
  1. : A pharmacist overhears a colleague discussing a patient’s prescription in the pharmacy waiting area. This violates:
    • A) FDCA.
    • B) HIPAA.
    • C) CSA.
    • D) OBRA ’90.

HIPAA

300

HIPAA

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

A 1996 federal law protecting patient health information

300

NIOSH Categories

  • Antineoplastics (e.g., cyclophosphamide): Carcinogenic, genotoxic.
  • Non-antineoplastics (e.g., hormones): Reproductive toxicity.
  • Drugs with reproductive risks (e.g., fluconazole at high doses).
300

Which antibiotic carries a black box warning for tendon rupture and peripheral neuropathy?
A. Azithromycin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Vancomycin
D. Linezolid


Ciprofloxacin

300
  1. Which vaccine is given as a three-dose series at 0, 1, and 6 months?
    • A. Hepatitis B
    • B. Tdap
    • C. MMR
    • D. Influenza

Hepatitis B

300
  1. A pharmacy discovers a theft of oxycodone. Which form must be filed with the DEA?
    • A) DEA Form 222.
    • B) DEA Form 106.
    • C) DEA Form 41.
    • D) DEA Form 224.

DEA Form 106

400

REMS

Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies

FDA-mandated programs for drugs with serious safety concerns to ensure benefits outweigh risks.

400

Proper garbing order:

  • Remove outer garments, jewelry; don shoe covers, hair cover, and face mask.
  • Perform hand hygiene (30 seconds with soap and water).
  • Don non-shedding gown.
  • Enter ante-area, apply sterile 70% isopropyl alcohol to hands.
  • Don sterile gloves (spray with alcohol after donning).
400

What is a key monitoring parameter for aminoglycosides like gentamicin?
A. Liver function tests
B. Trough levels
C. Blood pressure
D. ECG for QT prolongation

Trough levels

Gentamicin requires monitoring of peak (efficacy) and trough (<1 mcg/mL, toxicity) levels to prevent nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

400
  1. What is the needle size for intramuscular (IM) vaccine administration in adults?
    • A. 25-gauge, 5/8 inch
    • B. 23-gauge, 1 inch
    • C. 21-gauge, 2 inches
    • D. 18-gauge, 1.5 inches

23-gauge, 1 inch

400
  1. A pharmacist receives an oral prescription for oxycodone in an emergency. What is required next?
    • A) Dispense without further action.
    • B) Obtain a written prescription within 7 days.
    • C) File a DEA Form 106.
    • D) Refuse the prescription.

Obtain a written prescription within 7 days.

500

Schedule I

Schedule II

Schedule III

Schedule IV

Schedule V

Schedule I: No accepted medical use, high abuse potential (e.g., heroin, LSD).

Schedule II: High abuse potential, accepted medical use (e.g., oxycodone, morphine).

Schedule III–V: Decreasing abuse potential (e.g., Schedule III: codeine combinations; Schedule IV: alprazolam; Schedule V: cough syrups with codeine)

500

Cleanrooms maintain ISO-classified air quality

  • ISO 5: Primary engineering control (e.g., laminar airflow workbench) with <3,520 particles (≥0.5 μm) per m³.
  • ISO 7: Buffer area surrounding ISO 5.
  • ISO 8: Ante-area for garbing and staging
500

What is the target vancomycin trough level for severe MRSA infections?
A. 5–10 mcg/mL
B. 10–15 mcg/mL
C. 15–20 mcg/mL
D. 20–25 mcg/mL

15–20 mcg/mL

For severe MRSA infections (e.g., bacteremia, endocarditis), vancomycin trough levels should be 15–20 mcg/mL to ensure efficacy.

500
  1. What is the recommended storage temperature for most vaccines?
    • A. -20°C to -15°C
    • B. 2°C to 8°C
    • C. 15°C to 25°C
    • D. 35°C to 46°C

2°C to 8°C

500
  1. A prescriber’s DEA number is AB1234563. Is it valid?
    • A) Yes.
    • B) No, it has too many digits.
    • C) No, it lacks a check digit.
    • D) No, it starts with the wrong letters.

Yes

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