Cell Injury/Genetics/Oncology
Oncology
Immune Disorders
Blood Disorders
More Lore
100

What are the genetic variations that cause Down Syndrome, PKU, CF and Fragile X?

Down Syndrome: nondysjunction/trisomy 21

PKU: autosomal recessive, LOF of phenylalanine hydroxylase (arg-->trp at 498)

CF: autosomal recessive, LOF of CFTR gene (Cl channels)

Fragile X: progressive expansion/anticipation: CGG repeat at FraXq27.3

100
What are: carcinomas, sarcomas, leukemias, lymphomas, adenomas?*

carcinoma: epithelial tissue

sarcoma: connective tissue

leukemia: cancer of myeloid cell line (begin in bone marrow)

lymphoma: cancer of the lymphoid cell line (lymphocytes/begin in lymph nodes/immune tissue)

adenomas: glandular tissue

100

Describe the pathophysiology of type I hypersensitivity reaction.

IgE mediated:

IgE on mast cells & basophils bind to antigen, triggering the release of vasoactive substances


100

Describe the 3 different presentations of MCV of RBCs.

microcytic: decreased MCV

normocytic: normal MCV

macrocytic: increased MCV

100

Who accidentally third wheeled their crush's date in high school?

Molly

200

Describe the differences between hypertrophy, atrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia, and dysplasia.

hypertrophy: increase in cell size

atrophy: tissue wasting

hyperplasia: increase in cell number

metaplasia: change in cell type

dysplasia: disorganized cells of various sizes, shapes & arrangements

200

Describe the grading system for cancer.

determined by the level of differentiation

grade I: well differentiated (benign)

grade II: moderate differentiation

grade III: poorly differentiated

grade IV: undifferentiated/anaplastic 

200

Describe type IV hypersensitivity reactions.

delayed--occurring 48 hours+ after exposure to the antigen

*not dependent on antibodies

T cells are activated by APCs; cytokines are released which attracts macrophages, CD4 T cells, and CD8 T cells


example: contact dermatitis

200
What is the etiology and pathophysiology of pernicious anemia?

etio: B12 deficiency as a result of intrinsic factor malfunction/deficiency

patho: B12 deficiency leads to alteration in DNA and myelin synthesis, which results in abnormal maturation of RBCs (macrocytic)

200

Who drank a fifth of fireball with one other person in a night?

Trevor

300

Describe the difference between necrosis and apoptosis.

necrosis: the body attempts to remove dead cells--> inflammatory response & intracellular components in the bloodstream (ex. troponin)

apoptosis: cell suicide, no inflammatory response (usually physiologic)

300

Describe the TNM staging system.

Describes progression based on anatomical extent of solid tumors

T(primary tumor), N(node metastasis), M(metastasis)

M1: any combination of T/N with M1 will be stage IV

300

What is the difference between primary and secondary immunodeficiency disease (and give examples)

primary: inherited (ex: SCID, DiGeorge Syndrome, Selective IgA Deficiency)

secondary: acquired (ex: HIV/AIDS)

300

Describe the etiology of Thalessemia A, Thalessemia B, and sickle cell disease?

Thalassemia A: abnormally folded alpha hemoglobin chains

Thalassemia B: abnormally folded beta hemoglobin chains

Sickle Cell Disease: abnormally folded beta hemoglobin chains --> become beta sickle chains

300

Who has two boston terriers back home?

Kyle

400

Describe the 4 types of necrosis.

coagulative: ischemic injury

liquefactive: lysosomes dissolve tissue --> cyst/abscess

fat: fat cells die (trauma/pancreatitis)

caseous: lung tissue damage from TB

400

Describe proto-oncogenes, examples, and how they are activated (4 ways).

proto-oncogenes normally code for cell growth; when they go unchecked, they are overactive and can cause cancer

example: HER2 (ERBB2 gene), HGH

4 ways to activate:

1. retroviruses

2. mutation of proto-oncogene

3. mutation to regulator of proto-oncogene

4. error in chromosome replication results in extra copies of the proto-oncogene

400

Describe the etiology and pathophysiology of DiGeorge syndrome.

etio: chromosome 22q11 deletion

patho: failure to develop thymus (and other organs: parathyroids, cardiac outflow tract) results in severely depressed cell-mediated immunity (CD4 & CD8 T cells); B lymphocytes are unaffected

400

What are potential causes of thrombocytopenia (4 categories)?

-decreased production: cirrhosis

-decreased survival: prosthetic heart valves, immune thrombotic thrombocytopenia

-inherited disorders: von Willebrand

-acquired: drug-associated immune thrombocytopenia

400

Who has 13 tattoos?

Meghan

500

Describe the 4 stages of carcinogenesis.

1. initiation (mutations to proto-oncogenes or tumor suppressor genes)

2. promotion (proliferation under the influence of hormones, growth factors, additional mutations)

3. progression (malignant behavior, heterogeneous tumors arise)

4. metastasis (escape from origin tissue)

500

Describe tumor suppressor genes & give 2 examples.

Normally, tumor suppressor genes limit growth; in cancer, these are turned off.

p53: in normal cells, inhibits cell cycle & induces apoptosis

BRCCA1: breast cancer, inherited

500

Describe the late/chronic clinical manifestation of HIV/AIDS.

constitutional symptoms: fever, sweats, weight loss, nausea/vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea

fungal infections: pneumocystis jirovecci; bacterial infections; viral infections

thrush, esophageal candidiasis, hairy leukoplakia

dementia, retinitis

Kaposi sarcoma, non-Hodgkin lymphoma

500

Describe Virchow's Triad.

hypercoagulability (birth control, pregnancy, cancer)

tissue injury/inflammation

change in blood flow (post-op, sitting for long periods of time, sickle cell, atherosclerosis)

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