Understanding Practice Management
The characteristics of successful practices in the area of practice management include all BUT:
A. implementing patient-identified priorities
B. providing team-based medical care
C. optimizing price points for services rendered for the biggest financial gain.
D. focusing on the business aspects of ophthalmology
C. optimizing price points for services rendered for the biggest financial gain.
What are the principles that dictate appropriate or inappropriate behaviors?
A. Ethics
B. Decency
C. Morality
D. Standards
A. Ethics
Which of the following medications may cause rapid pulse?
A. atropine
B. timolol
C. nepafenac
D. neomycin
A. atropine
Which of the following modes of drug delivery involves placing the drug directly on the surface of the eye?
A. Periocular
B. Sub-Tenon's
C. Subcutaneous
D. Topical
D. Topical
During the cover-uncover test, neither eye moves when the cover is removed. This probably represents which of the following?
A. tropia
B. suppression
C. orthophoria
D. amblyopia
C. orthophoria
The size of an ocular deviation may be measured by which of the following?
A. prism and alternate cover test
B. Worth 4-dot test
C. Titmus fly
D. exophthalmometer
A. prism and alternate cover test
A patient telephones the ophthalmologist's office reporting an alkali burn in the eye. What should the ophthalmic assistant instruct the patient to do?
A. patch the eye, and proceed immediately to the office or emergency facility
B. keep the eye closed, and proceed immediately to the office or emergency facility
C. irrigate the eye with water for 20 minutes, and then proceed to the office or emergency facility
D. put a lubricating ointment on the eye, and proceed immediately to the office or emergency
C. irrigate the eye with water for 20 minutes, and then proceed to the office or emergency facility
Scribing is the art of any of the following EXCEPT:
A. documenting the physician's examination findings
B. documenting the physician's diagnosis
C. documenting when and where to take your physician's car to get it's oil changed.
D. documenting the physicians treatment plan.
C. documenting when and where to take your physician's car to get it's oil changed.
Informed consent occurs:
A. when the patient signs the consent form.
B. when the patient acknowledges understanding of the treatment recommended.
C. as a process of patient education and participation in the decision-making process with documentation in record of consent to treat.
D. when a reasonable patient verbally agrees to the recommended treatment.
C. as a process of patient education and participation in the decision-making process with documentation in record of consent to treat.
A patient has a flare-up of iritis. What is the most appropriate topical medication for treating this problem?
A. proparacaine ophthalmic solution
B. cyclosporine A emulsion
C. prednisolone acetate 1% suspension
D. timolol 1% solution
C. prednisolone acetate 1% suspension
Patients most commonly cite which systemic drug as producing as allergic or bad reaction?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ampicillin
C. Tetracycline
D. Tobramycin
B. Ampicillin
What is tested when the cardinal positions of gaze are evaluated?
A. convergence
B. divergence
C. fusion
D. function of the 6 extraocular muscles
D. function of the 6 extraocular muscles
What measurement error is produced when the fluorescein rings are too narrow during applanation tonometry?
A. Falsely low reading
B. No error, measurement is accurate.
C. Falsely high reading
D. Means calibration of prism is off.
A. Falsely low reading
Which of the following is the BEST method for kinetic testing of the central visual field?
A. Amsler grid
B. Confrontation testing
C. Harrington-Flocks screener
D. Tangent screen
D. Tangent screen
There are 4 important groups that a practice must comply with legally. They are:
A. Merit-Based Incentive Payment System, HIPAA, OSHA, and PECOS.
B. PECOS, OSHA, HIPPA, and ASPCA.
C. AAO, HIPPA,OSHA, PECOS.
D. Merit-Based Incentive Payment System, HIPAA, PECOS, and AAO.
A. Merit-Based Incentive Payment System, HIPAA, OSHA, and PECOS.
Obtaining informed consent for a procedure:
A. is having the patient sign the consent form.
B. begins at the preoperative visit.
C. is not needed if the procedure is medically necessary.
D. is a process involving education of the patient.
D. is a process involving education of the patient.
Which statement is correct regarding antimicrobial therapy?
A. So-called 'fortified' antibiotics are available without a prescription.
B. Topical antibiotics inhibit bacterial growth but systemic antibiotics kill bacteria.
C. Single antifungal or antiviral agents are widely used as a preventive measure.
D. Antivirals inhibit the ability of viruses to reproduce.
D. Antivirals inhibit the ability of viruses to reproduce.
What is a cycloplegic that is ideal for office use because it is relatively weak and is primarily used for its dilating ability?
A. Tropicamide
B. Phenylephrine
C. Cyclopentolate
D. Atropine
A. Tropicamide
When performing the cover-uncover test, the examiner notices that the uncovered eye moves in order to fixate on the target. What does this probably represent?
A. tropia
Visual field loss due to optic nerve cupping is related to which condition?
A. Glaucoma
B. Tropia
C. Phoria
D. Nystagmus
A. Glaucoma
The Amsler grid is designed to evaluate visual field deficiencies in how many degrees of central vision?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 45
D. 90
B. 20
Coding compliance is important because a lack of compliance can result in:
A. costly incorrect billing that can lead to third party audits and significant practice refunds back to the payer.
B. Bigger revenue for the practice, bigger bonuses for staff.
C. Not much change occurs with improper coding, it can easily be fixed.
A. costly incorrect billing that can lead to third party audits and significant practice refunds back to the payer.
The American Academy of Ophthalmology (AAO), has developed a code of ethics for its members to follow. It includes all of the following ideas EXCEPT:
A. Competence of Technicians.
B. Charge/time of services based on type of insurance a patient has.
C. Communication with Patients.
D. Informed Consent and Ophthalmic Assistants.
B. Charge/time of services based on type of insurance a patient has.
What cycloplegic agent produces the longest lasting effect?
A. Homatropine
B. Atropine Sulfate
C. Tropicamide
D. Cyclopentolate
B. Atropine Sulfate
Which statement is correct regarding side effects of ophthalmic medications?
A. Miotics may cause rapid pulse and dry mouth.
B. Anesthetics prevent an allergic reaction by deadening a nerve.
C. Cycloplegics may precipitate an attack of angle-closure glaucoma.
D. Unlike systemic corticosteroid therapy, topical application does not cause cataracts.
C. Cycloplegics may precipitate an attack of angle-closure glaucoma.
The measurement used to determine the distance between the optical centers of spectacle lenses is the?
A. pupillary distance
B. axial length
C. vertex distance
D. refractive error
A. pupillary distance
Which type of perimetry involves a moving target?
A. Threshold
B. Kinetic
C. Static
D. Automatic
B. Kinetic
The strength of the middle segment in a trifocal lens is?
A. -1.00 weaker than the reading segment add.
B. 50% of the strength of the reading segment add.
C. difficult to measure
D. stronger in magnification than the reading segment add.
B. 50% of the strength of the reading segment add.
A good assistant will demonstrate the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. Stating something is "Not your job" if it does not fall within your usual duties.
B. Having a calm and gentle demeanor at all times.
C. Being fully engaged and present when in a patient's exam room
D. Not allowing outside matters or others attitudes manipulate your attitude while in clinic.
A. Stating something is "Not your job" if it does not fall within your usual duties.
The application of coding facilitates the processing of insurance claims. The assigned code, as it refers to procedures and services, must be supported by:
A. all billing practices
B. the medical records.
C. the policies and procedures manual.
D. the length of time the appointment took.
B. the medical records.
Which eye drop inactivates the sphincter muscle of the iris?
A. Cycloplegic
B. Anesthetic
C. Miotic
D. Mydriatic
A. Cycloplegic
What is the principle mode of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors when used for the treatment of glaucoma?
A. Constriction of the pupil
B. Reduction of pressure in the aqueous veins
C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body
D. Increased rate of flow of aqueous through the trabecular meshwork
C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body
What happens at the chiasmal junction?
A. All nerve fibers from the right eye cross to the left side of the brain and vice versa.
B. Some of the nasal and some of the temporal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side.
C. The nasal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side.
D. The temporal nerve fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side.
C. The nasal fibers of each optic nerve cross over to the other side.
What combination of extraocular muscle actions occur when a patient looks to their left?
A. L lateral rectus contracts. R lateral rectus relaxes
Which of the following properly represents the steps used to convert a spherocylindrical lens into its spherical equivalent ?
A. Divide the spherical power in half; then add the cylinder power.
B. Add the spherical and cylinder power; then divide by 2.
C. Divide the cylinder power in half; then add the spherical power.
D. Divide the cylinder power in half; then subtract the spherical power.
C. Divide the cylinder power in half; then add the spherical power.