OMM
Ethics/Public Health
Peds/OB
Internal Medicine
Surgery/EM
100

A patient has a left-on-left sacral torsion. Which axis is involved?

A. Right oblique axis
B. Left oblique axis
C. Superior transverse axis
D. Inferior transverse axis

Answer: B. Left Oblique Axis

Forward sacral torsions are named for the direction of rotation and the axis.

  • Left-on-left = rotated left on a left oblique axis
  • Right-on-right = rotated right on a right oblique axis
100

A patient with a documented DNR becomes pulseless during hospitalization. What is the next step?

A. Begin CPR
B. Intubate only
C. Honor the DNR order
D. Call family first

C. Honor the DNR order

A DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) order means that if the patient suffers cardiac arrest, CPR and advanced cardiac life support measures should not be initiated.

A valid DNR is the patient's expressed medical decision and should be respected.

100

An infant of a diabetic mother develops seizures on day 3 of life. Most likely cause?

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyperbilirubinemia

B. Hypocalcemia

Infants of diabetic mothers are at risk for: Hypoglycemia, Hypocalcemia, Hypomagnesemia

Hypocalcemia classically presents around 24-72 hours after birth with: Jitteriness, Tremors, Seizures, Irritability

100

A patient with mucosal bleeding has abnormal ristocetin testing.

A. Hemophilia A
B. ITP
C. von Willebrand disease
D. DIC

C. von Willebrand disease

100

A trauma patient develops absent breath sounds, hypotension, and tracheal deviation.

A. Chest CT
B. Needle decompression
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Thoracotomy

B. Needle decompression

200

When an OMM question states a motion is "restricted in flexion," it means:

A. Flexion is the position of ease
B. Flexion is the restricted motion
C. Extension is restricted
D. Neutral mechanics are present

Answer: B Flexion is the restricted motion

The phrase "restricted in flexion" means the patient cannot move normally into flexion.

  • Restricted in = cannot move there
  • Restricted to = stuck there
200

A resident sees a patient independently and bills Medicare. Which requirement must be met?

A. Nurse cosignature
B. Attending physician involvement
C. Case manager review
D. Hospital administrator approval

B. Attending physician involvement

Under CMS teaching physician rules, the attending physician must participate in the patient's care and document their involvement.

Residents cannot independently generate billable Medicare services

200

A child swallows a coin. Imaging shows it at the level of the carina. Where is the coin most likely located?

A. Trachea
B. Right mainstem bronchus
C. Esophagus
D. Stomach

C. Esophagus

200

Hairy cell leukemia is classically associated with:

A. Auer rods
B. TRAP positivity
C. Philadelphia chromosome
D. Reed-Sternberg cells

B. TRAP positivity

200

A patient with a pneumothorax has no air leak and remains stable on water seal. Next step?

A. Increase suction
B. Leave tube indefinitely
C. Remove chest tube
D. Repeat needle decompression

C. Remove chest tube

300

Sympathetic innervation to the midgut originates from:

A. T1-T4
B. T5-T9
C.ç
D. L1-L2

Answer: C. T10-T11

The midgut extends from the distal duodenum to the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon.

Sympathetic levels:

  • Foregut = T5-T9
  • Midgut = T10-T11
  • Hindgut = T12-L2
300

"The thing speaks for itself" is the legal doctrine known as:

A. Proximate cause
B. Res ipsa loquitur
C. Comparative negligence
D. Vicarious liability

B. Res ipsa loquitur

Res ipsa loquitur means "the thing speaks for itself."

Certain events should not occur without negligence. Leaving a sponge inside a patient is one of the classic examples.

  • Proximate cause → Primary cause of an injury or harm
  • Comparative negligence → shared fault between parties.
  • Vicarious liability → employer responsibility for employee actions.
300

A pregnant woman with cocaine use develops abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.

A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Vasa previa
D. Uterine rupture

B. Placental abruption

300

Broad-based budding yeast is most consistent with:

A. Histoplasmosis
B. Cryptococcus
C. Blastomycosis
D. Coccidioidomycosis

C. Blastomycosis

300

The definitive test required during brain death evaluation is:

A. EEG
B. MRI brain
C. Apnea testing
D. Cerebral angiography

C. Apnea testing

400

An innominate inflare is commonly treated using which muscle group?

A. Quadriceps
B. Hamstrings
C. Abductors
D. Adductors

Answer: D. Adductors

An inflare occurs when the ASIS moves medially.

Muscle energy uses the adductors to correct this dysfunction.

400

An employer is liable for the actions of an employee under:

A. Res ipsa loquitur
B. Assault
C. Vicarious liability
D. Strict liability

C. Vicarious liability

Employers may be responsible for negligent actions performed by employees acting within the scope of employment.

Hospitals are frequently held liable for employee mistakes under this principle.

A. Proximate cause describes causation, not employer liability.

D. Assault is intentional threatening behavior.

400

A pregnant woman develops intensely pruritic abdominal plaques that spare the umbilicus.

A. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
B. Pemphigoid gestationis
C. PUPPP
D. Atopic eruption


C. PUPPP

400

First-line treatment for cryptosporidiosis in an immunocompetent patient:

A. Amphotericin B
B. Nitazoxanide
C. Ivermectin
D. Fluconazole

B. Nitazoxanide

400

A fracture is associated with diminished distal pulses. Next best step?

A. Splint and discharge
B. Pain control only
C. Immediate vascular evaluation/reduction
D. Repeat x-ray in 1 week

C. Immediate vascular evaluation/reduction

500

A 67-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of alternating constipation and diarrhea, unintentional weight loss, and iron-deficiency anemia. Colonoscopy is pending. Osteopathic structural examination demonstrates:

  • Increased tissue texture changes and tenderness from T10-L2
  • A left-on-left sacral torsion
  • Tender nodules along the proximal iliotibial band bilaterally
  • Restricted motion of the descending colon at the splenic flexure

Which of the following osteopathic findings is most specifically associated with the suspected visceral pathology?

A. Tenderness at the left fifth intercostal space near the sternum
B. Tenderness at the right sixth intercostal space near the sternum
C. Tenderness along the proximal iliotibial band
D. Tenderness within the second intercostal space bilaterally
E. Tenderness 1 inch superior and lateral to the umbilicus

C. Tenderness along the proximal iliotibial band



A. Left 5th intercostal space: Stomach (gastric acidity)

B. Right 6th intercostal space: Liver/Gallbladder

C. Proximal iliotibial band: Anterior Chapman point for the colon

D. 2nd intercostal space bilaterally: Eyes/thyroid/upper respiratory structures

E. 1 inch superior and lateral to the umbilicus: Kidney

500

A healthcare model centered around coordinated primary care is:

A. PPO
B. HMO
C. ACO
D. Patient-Centered Medical Home

D. Patient-Centered Medical Home

PCMH: Primary care hub- coordinated, preventive, longitudinal care with a continuous physician-patient relationship

ACO: Population health + cost savings; providers share responsibility for quality metrics and reducing spending

HMO: Insurance model with a primary care gatekeeper and restricted network

PPO: Insurance model with greater flexibility and out-of-network options

500

A postmenopausal woman has vaginal bleeding and an endometrial stripe measuring 20 mm.

A. Reassure and repeat ultrasound
B. Oral progesterone trial
C. Endometrial biopsy
D. Hysterectomy

C. Endometrial biopsy

500

A patient with a T-score of -4.0 is at very high fracture risk. Appropriate treatment includes:

A. Calcium alone
B. Vitamin D alone
C. Bisphosphonate therapy
D. Observation

C. Bisphosphonate therapy

500

A patient with recurrent symptomatic pleural effusions would most likely require:

A. Thoracostomy tube placement
B. Needle decompression
C. Tracheostomy
D. Pericardiocentesis

A. Thoracostomy tube placement

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