TCP/IP Basics
Routing
TCP/IP Applications
Network Naming
Securing TCP/IP
100
1. What is the result of converting 11110000.10111001.00001000.01100111 to dotted decimal notation?
A. 4.5.1.5
B. 240.185.8.103
C. 15.157.16.230
D. 103.8.185.240
B. 240.185.8.103 is the result of the conversion to dotted decimal notation.
100
1. What is a router?
A. A piece of hardware that forwards packets based on IP address
B. A device that separates your computers from the Internet
C. A piece of hardware that distributes a single Internet connection to multiple
computers
D. A synonym for a firewall
A. A router is a piece of hardware that forwards packets based on IP address.
100
1. What is the session information—IP address, port number, and Layer 4 protocol—held in memory called? (Select two.)
A. Endpoint
B. Port
C. Segment
D. Session
E. Socket
A and E. The session information held in memory is called an endpoint or socket
100
1. Which DNS component performs a recursive lookup to determine an IP address?
A. FQDN
B. ICANN
C. Name server
D. Resolver
D. The resolver performs a recursive lookup to determine an IP address
100
1. Any encryption that uses the same key for encryption and decryption is called?
A. Encoded key
B. Symmetric key
C. Single key
D. Synthetic key
B. Symmetric-key encryption uses the same key
200
2. Eric sits down at a client’s Windows computer that’s having some network connectivity issues. He wants to start troubleshooting by viewing both the system’s IP address and MAC address. What command should he use?
A. ifconfig
B. ip addr
C. ipconfig
D. ipconfig /all
D. In Windows, the ipconfig /all command and switch will show both the IP address and the MAC address of a system
200
2. Routers must use the same type of connection for all routes, such as Ethernet to Ethernet or DOCSIS to DOCSIS.
A. True
B. False
B. False; a router can interconnect different Layer 2 technologies.
200
2. Which of the following are key benefits of Web-based mail? (Select two.)
A. You can use a third-party application, like Microsoft Outlook, to download your e-mail.
B. You can access your e-mail from anywhere in the world using a Web browser and an Internet connection.
C. It is completely spam-free.
D. It is great for creating throw-away accounts
B and D. You can access a Web-based e-mail account from any browser on any machine connected to the Internet. These accounts are great for creating throwaway e-mail addresses
200
2. Which record type defines the primary name server in charge of a zone?
A. A
B. AAAA
C. NS
D. SOA
D. The SOA record defines the primary name server in charge of a zone.
200
2. A(n) _______________ cipher encrypts the plaintext one bit at a time.
A. block
B. forwarding
C. stream
D. asymmetric
C. A stream cipher encrypts one bit at a time
300
3. Which of the following describe IPv4? (Select three.)
A. Uses decimal, not hexadecimal numbers
B. Uses periods, not colons, as separators
C. Uses four octets
D. Uses eight sets of characters
A, B, and C. IPv4 uses decimal numbers, uses periods as separators, and has four octets
300
3. What technology allows you to share a single public IP address with many computers?
A. Static address translation
B. Natural address translation
C. Computed public address translation
D. Port address translation
D. Port address translation, commonly known as PAT, enables you to share a single public IP address with many computers.
300
3. A TLS URL connection starts with which prefix?
A. http
B. www
C. ftp
D. https
D. URLs that use a TLS connection start with https instead of http.
300
3. What command do you run to see the DNS cache on a Windows system?
A. ping /showdns
B. ipconfig /showdns
C. ipconfig /displaydns
D. ping /displaydns
C. To see the DNS cache on a Windows system, run the command ipconfig / displaydns at a command prompt.
300
3. In a PKI encryption method, which key encrypts the data?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Both
D. Depends on who sends the data
A. You send someone a public key that he or she, in turn, encrypts. The private key decrypts it.
400
4. What is the result of converting 192.168.0.1 to binary?
A. 11000000.10101000.00000000.00000001
B. 11000000.10101000.00000000.10000000
C. 11000000.10101000.00000000.1
D. 11.10101.0.1
A. 11000000.10101000.00000000.00000001 is the binary conversion of
192.168.0.1.
400
4. Given the following routing table:
where would a packet with the address 64.165.5.34 be sent?
A. To the default gateway on interface WAN.
B. To the 10.11.12.0/24 network on interface LAN.
C. To the 64.165.5.0/24 network on interface WAN.
D. Nowhere; the routing table does not have a route for that address
C. It would be sent to the 64.165.5.0/24 network on interface WAN.
400
4. Which statements about SSH and Telnet are true? (Select two.)
A. Windows comes with preinstalled SSH and Telnet clients.
B. SSH is more secure than Telnet because it encrypts data.
C. Telnet is a command-line tool, whereas SSH is a GUI tool.
D. SSH uses port 22, and Telnet uses port 23.
B and D. SSH encrypts data and is more secure than Telnet. Also, SSH uses port 22, whereas Telnet uses port 23.
400
4. What’s the process through which records propagate among name servers?
A. hosts file
B. Recursive transfer
C. Resolver cache
D. Zone transfer
D. A zone transfer is the process through which records propagate among name servers
400
4. The process of verifying with a high degree of confidence that the sender is who the receiver thinks he or she should be is called _______________.
A. PKI
B. authentication
C. locking
D. nonrepudiation
D. This is the definition of nonrepudiation
500
5. Which of the following are not valid IP addresses to assign to a Windows-based system?
(Select two.)
A. 10.1.1.1/24
B. 127.0.0.1/24
C. 250.250.250.255/24
D. 192.168.0.1/24
B and C. The special reserved IP address 127.0.0.1 is called the loopback address and is used for testing, not assigning to computers. The IP address 250.250.250.255 falls in the Class E range, which isn’t assigned to hosts.
500
5. Which of the following is an EGP?
A. BGP
B. IGP
C. EIGRP
D. IS-IS
A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an exterior gateway protocol.
500
5. Why might you use the netstat utility?
A. To see the route an IP packet takes across multiple routers
B. To see your IP address and configuration details
C. To see the endpoints of your sessions
D. To issue commands to a remote server
C. Use netstat to see the endpoints of your sessions.
500
5. Which record type holds the IPv6 address for a host?
A. A
B. AAAA
C. A6
D. SOA
B. AAAA records hold IPv6 addresses for hosts.
500
5. A hash function is by definition a _______________.
A. complex function
B. PKI function
C. one-way function
D. systematic function
C. Hash functions must be one-way. They should be complex, but complexity is not a requirement.
600
6. Phyllis has a service ticket for one of the latest Apple Macs that’s having network connectivity problems. What command could she use to quickly see the IP address and MAC address for that computer?
A. ifconfig
B. ip addr
C. ipconfig
D. ipconfig /all
A. Using the ifconfig command on a macOS system shows the system’s IP address and MAC address.
600
6. What dynamic routing protocol uses link state advertisements to exchange information about networks?
A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. IS-IS
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) uses link state advertisement (LSA) packets to exchange information about networks.
600
6. Which protocol enables synchronization of communication among connected computing devices?
A. FTP
B. IMAP4
C. NTP
D. TFTP
C. Network Time Protocol enables synchronization of communication.
600
6. Which record type acts like an alias, returning an FQDN rather than an IP address?
A. A
B. CNAME
C. MX
D. SOA
B. A CNAME record acts like an alias, returning an FQDN rather than an IP address.
600
6. Which of the following is a hash function?
A. SHA-256
B. RC4
C. AES
D. BMX
A. Of the choices listed, only SHA-256 is a hash function
700
7. Which of the following is a valid Class C IP address?
A. 50.50.50.50
B. 100.100.100.100
C. 192.168.0.254
D. 250.250.250.250
C. The address 192.168.0.254 falls within the range of Class C addresses because it starts with an octet from 192 through 223.
700
7. What is Area 0 called in OSPF?
A. Local Area
B. Primary Zone
C. Trunk
D. Backbone
D. Area 0 is called the backbone area.
700
7. Port 143 (IMAP4) is what kind of port?
A. Well-known
B. Registered
C. Ephemeral
D. Reserved
A. Ports 0–1023 are well-known ports.
700
7. Which type of DNS record is used by mail servers to determine where to send e-mail?
A. A record
B. CNAME record
C. MX record
D. SMTP record
C. The MX record is used by mail servers to determine where to send e-mail
700
7. In order to have a PKI you must have a(n) _______________.
A. Web server
B. Web of trust
C. root authority
D. unsigned certificate
C. A public-key infrastructure (PKI) must have a root authority
800
8. What processes are used to take a single class of IP addresses and chop it up into multiple smaller groups? (Select two.)
A. CIDR
B. ping
C. Subnetting
D. Subnitting
A and C. Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) and subnetting enable you to take a single class of IP addresses and chop it up into multiple smaller groups called subnets.
800
8. Which of the following is not a name for a serial cable that you use to configure a router?
A. Console cable
B. Yost cable
C. Rollover cable
D. Null modem cable
D. The Yost cable, which was invented to standardize the serial console interface to connect to the router console port, is also known as a rollover or console cable
800
8. What port does passive FTP use?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 23
D. 25
B. Passive FTP only uses port 21 and a random port. Active FTP uses ports 20 and 21.
800
8. Running which command enables you to clear the DNS cache?
A. ipconfig
B. ipconfig /all
C. ipconfig /dns
D. ipconfig /flushdns
D. Running the command ipconfig /flushdns clears the DNS cache
800
8. Which type of access control requires a label to define its sensitivity?
A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. VAC
A. Mandatory access control must use a label to define sensitivity.
900
9. Which statements about subnet masks are true? (Select two.)
A. Every network client has a unique subnet mask.
B. Every client on a network shares the same subnet mask.
C. A subnet mask consists of a string of zeroes followed by a string of ones.
D. A subnet mask consists of a string of ones followed by a string of zeroes
B and D. Every client on a network shares the same subnet mask. Subnet masks consist of a string of ones followed by a string of zeroes.
900
9. When you are first setting up a new router, you should never plug it into an existing network.
A. True
B. False
A. True; never plug a new router into an existing network
900
9. Which of the following protocols are used to retrieve e-mail from servers? (Select two.)
A. IMAP4
B. ICMP
C. IGMP
D. POP3
A and D. IMAP4 and POP3 are used to retrieve e-mail.
900
9. Running which command enables you to query the zone of a DNS server?
A. ipconfig
B. nslookup
C. ping
D. xdns
B. The tool to use for querying DNS server zones is nslookup.
900
9. If you see some traffic running on UDP ports 1812 and 1813, what AAA standard is running?
A. PPP
B. RADIUS
C. MS-CHAP
D. TACACS+
B. RADIUS uses UDP ports 1812 and 1813.
1000
10. In which order are packets created and sent when a client requests an IP address from a DHCP server?
A. DHCP Discover, DHCP Offer, DHCP Request, DHCP ACK
B. DHCP Discover, DHCP Request, DHCP Offer, DHCP ACK
C. DHCP Request, DHCP Offer, DHCP Discover, DHCP ACK
D. DHCP Request, DHCP Offer, DHCP ACK, DHCP Discover
A. DHCP Discover, DHCP Offer, DHCP Request, DHCP ACK (remember DORA) is the correct order.
1000
10. The traceroute utility is useful for which purpose?
A. Configuring routers remotely
B. Showing the physical location of the route between you and the destination
C. Discovering information about the routers between you and the destination address
D. Fixing the computer’s local routing table
C. The traceroute utility is useful for discovering information about the routers between you and the destination address.
1000
10. Which statements about netstat switches (in Windows) are true? (Select three.)
A. –a shows all used ports.
B. –n shows port numbers and IP addresses.
C. –o shows the process ID.
D. –s shows the application name.
A, B, and C. –a shows all used ports; –n shows port numbers and IP addresses; and –o shows the process ID.
1000
10. Where does a DNS server store the IP addresses and FQDNs for the computers
within a domain?
A. Forward lookup zone
B. Canonical zone
C. MX record
D. SMTP record
A. A DNS server stores the IP addresses and FQDNs for the computers within a domain in the forward lookup zone (and reverse lookup zone as well).
1000
10. Which authentication standard is highly time sensitive?
A. PAP
B. RADIUS
C. 802.1X
D. Kerberos
D. All Kerberos tickets are timestamped.