Nutritional Deficiencies
Inflammatory
Genetic Conditions
Degenerative
Neoplasms
Infectious Diseases
Trauma
100

What condition presents with bowed legs, craniotabes (soft skull), and rachitic rosary (bead-like costochondral junctions) in a child?

a) osteogenesis imperfecta

b) rickets

c) osteopetrosis

d) scurvy

b) rickets

results from vitamin d deficiency in children, leading to defective mineralization of growth plates and skeletal deformities

100

What type of crystals are seen in gout, and how do they appear under polarized light?

a) rhomboid; positively birefringent

b) needle-shaped; negatively birefringent

c) plate-shaped; positively birefringent

d) hexagonal; non-birefringent

b) needle-shaped; negatively birefringent

gout shows monosodium urate crystals that appear yellow when aligned with polarized light (negative birefringence)

100

A child with blue sclerae, multiple fractures, hearing loss and dental problems likely has: 

a) rickets

b) osteogenesis imperfecta

c) scurvy

d) osteopetrosis

b) osteogenesis imperfecta

autosomal dominant; caused by defective type I collagen and often mimics signs of child abuse due to frequent fractures

Bones

Ears

Eyes

Teeth

100

What degenerative joint disease presents with morning stiffness that improves with use and affects DIP joints?

a) RA

b) OA

c) Gout

d) SLE

b) OA

worsens with activity, shows osteophytes, involves DIP (Heberden nodes) and PIP (bouchard nodes), sparing MCPs

100

What childhood bone tumor shows "onion skin" periosteal reaction and t(11;22) translocation

a) osteosarcoma

b) chondrosarcoma

c) ewing sarcoma

d) osteoid osteoma

c) ewing sarcoma

ewing shows small blue cells on histology, of the dyaphysis of long bones (femur), aggressive but responsive to chemo, with a characteristic codman triangle and sunburst pattern on xray

100

Neisseria gonorrhea commonly causes osteomyelitis. However, which condition might it also cause, where it presents with no fever and malaise, high WBC, and red hot inflamed painful joints (often knee)?

Septic (infectious) arthritis

100

Which of the following best describes the "unhappy triad" of knee injury?

a) ACL + LCL + lateral meniscus

b) ACL + MCL + medial meniscus

c) PCL + MCL + medial meniscus

d) ACL + LCL + medial meniscus

b) ACL + MCL + medial meniscus

The unhappy triad occurs due to a lateral blow to the knee, injuring these three structures

200

A deficiency in vitamin C causes which MSK condition characterized by bleeding gums and corkscrew hairs?

a) scurvy

b) osteopetrosis

c) osteomalacia

d) rickets

a) scurvy

vitamin c is required for collagen synthesis; its deficiency results in bleeding, impaired wound healing, and connective tissue fragility

200

What condition presents with Gottron's papules (on knuckles), heliotrope rash and may be associated with malignancy?

a) RA

b) dermatomyositis

c) PMR

d) fibromyalgia

b) dermatomyositis

features proximal muscle weakness and skin findings, and may signal an underlying cancer

200

What genetic disorder with tall stature, lens discoloration, and risk of aortic dissection involves fibrillin-1 mutations?

a) ehlers-danlos syndrome

b) marfan syndrome

c) homocystinuria

d) OI

b) marfan syndrome

autosomal dominant affecting fibrillin (structural protein for elastin) due to FBN1 mutations

200

A patient with vertebral compression fractures and normal calcium, phosphate and ALP likely has:

a) osteopetrosis

b) osteomalacia

c) osteoporosis

d) paget disease

c) osteoporosis

low bone mass and fragility fractures, with normal labs and low bone density on DEXA scan

200

Which malignant tumor represents 30% of bone sarcomas, is a tumor of chondrocytes, causes popcorn mineralization on xray (stippled appearance), and has deep dull achy pain?

a) ewing sarcoma

b) chondrosarcoma

c) osteosarcoma

b) chondrosarcoma

middle aged

200

Which condition is commonly caused by strep progenes (Group A strep), presents with severe pain, crepitus, blood blisters and common after surgery?

Necrotizing fasciitis

200

Which overuse injury presents with pain at the lateral epicondyle?

a) golfer's elbow

b) tennis elbow

c) biceps tendinitis

d) jumper's knee

b) tennis elbow

overuse of extensor muscles attached to the lateral epicondyle

300

Which vitamin deficiency leads to myopathy, ataxia and hemolytic anemia?

a) vitamin a

b) vitamin d

c) vitamin e

d) vitamin k

c) vitamin e

it protects against oxidative damage; its deficiency causes neuromuscular symptoms and hemolysis

300

A patient with shoulder and hip stiffness but normal CK levels most likely has:

a) dermatomyositis

b) polymyalgia rheumatica

c) polymyositis

d) fibromyalgia

b) polymyalgia rheumatica

PMR presents with proximal stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers (ESR, CRP) but normal muscle enzymes. it's associated with giant cell arteritis (GCA)

300

What muscular dystrophy presents in childhood with calf pseudohypertrophy, pelvic girdle weakness, cardiomyopathy and Gower's sign?

a) Becker muscular dystrophy

b) myotonic dystrophy

c) Duchenne muscular dystrophy

d) Emery-Dreifuss dystrophy

c) Duchenne muscular dystrophy

DMD is x-linked frameshift mutation in dystrophin, leading to early progressive muscle weakness. Increased CK

300

What boen disease presents with a mosaic pattern of lammelar and woven bone, hearing loss, and increased ALP?

a) Osteoporosis

b) osteopetrosis

c) paget disease of bone

d) hyperparathyroidism

c) paget disease of bone

involves disordered bone remodelling with increased osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity

300

what is the name of a benign bone tumor commonly seen on the skull and facial bones, from an autosomal dominant inheritance, and associated with GI polyps and epidermoid cysts?

Osteoma

300

What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis?

Staph aureus

300

Which ligament is commonly torn in a non-contact twisting knee injury?

a) LCL

b) PCL

c) ACL

d) patellar retinaculum

c) ACL

it prevents anterior tibial translation and is vulnerable during sudden deceleration and pivoting

400

In adults, chronic kidney disease along with low sun exposure are risk factors for which vitamin deficiency?

Vitamin D

400

What triad is seen in reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome)

a) arthritis, photosensitivity, renal failure

b) urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis

c) polyarthritis, rash, fever

d) conjunctivitis, fever, splenomegaly

b) urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis

reactive arthritis is post-infectious, and presents with the "can't pee, can't see, can't climb a tree"

400

Which condition shows delayed muscle relaxation (myotonia), gonadal atrophy, early frontal balding, and cataracts?

a) DMD

b) myotonic dystrophy

c) oculopharyngeal dystrophy

d) becker muscular dystrophy

b) myotonic dystrophy

multisystem symptoms, autosomal dominant, CTG trinucleuotide repeat expansion

Cararacts

Toupee

Gonadal Atrophy

400

Which condition presents with throbbing pain and results from ischemic necrosis of bone and may affect the femoral head?

a) osteopetrosis

b) osteoporosis

c) avascular necrosis

d) fibrous dysplasia

c) avascular necrosis "osteonecrosis"

causes include steroids, alcoholism, sickle cell, caisson's disease, pancreatitis (ASEPTIC pnemonic)

400

Osteosarcoma (osteogenic sarcoma) is a malignant tumor of osteoblasts. What bone and what age does it affect?

a) humerus and 60 year olds

b) long bones near knee and under 20 year olds

b) long bones near knee and under 20 year olds

400

What type of infectious arthritis causes more knee involvement, migratory polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis in hands, and dermatitis pustules on the hands?

Gonococcal arthritis

400

In disc herniation, patients experience parasthesia, weakness in the affected dermatome/myotome, and radicular pain. If L3/L4 is herniated, which nerve root is affected?

L4 nerve root

500

What are the names of the two "signs" that are positive in Osteomalacia, indicating hypocalcemic tetany?

Chvostek & Trousseau

500

Which disease is most associated with pannus formation, morning stiffness improves with use, swan neck deformity, anti0CCP antibodies, symmetric joint involvement?

a) OA

b) RA

c) Gout

d) PMR

b) RA

500

The most common type of core myopathies are AD and due to RYR1 mutation. When it comes to progressive muscle weakness, how does it differ from myositis?

Myositis also has proximal muscle weakness but it's progressive. Core myopathies are not progressive.

500

Which condition has defective osteoclasts causing a failure of bone resorption, showing thickened, dense bones prone to fractures. Treated with bone marrow transplant.

a) osteoporosis

b) osteopetrosis

c) osteoarthritis

d) osteonecrosis

b) osteopetrosis

Xray shows diffuse symmetric sclerosis, genetic defect in carbonic anhydrase II - can't create acidic environment needed for bone breakdown

500

What are the two xray findings in osteosarcoma?

a) bamboo spine and onion skin appearance

b) codman triangle and sunburst pattern

b) codman triangle and sunburst pattern

codman = periosteal elevation

sunburst = tumor grows too fast, causing perpendicular bone formation

500

Is osteomyelitis more common in children or adults?

Children

best detected on MRI, has high ESR and CRP. hematogenous spread. metaphysis of long bones

500

Which nerve is affected in both the ulnar claw and median claw formations?

a) distal ulnar nerve

b) proximal median nerve

a) distal ulnar nerve

(can't extend fingers)

when you can't make fist, it's proximal median nerve issue

600

Which condition would present with osteopenia and looser zones (pseudofractures) on xray?

Osteomalacia (adult vit. d deficiency)

600

Which autoimmune condition is associated with HLA-B27, complication includes restrictive lung disease and presents with "bamboo spine" (vertebral fusion) on XRay?

Ankylosing Spondylitis

600

Is Becker Muscular Dystrophy (BMD) milder or more severe than Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)?

Milder. It is a non-frameshift mutation in the DMD gene. 

600

What T-score value is diagnostic for osteoporosis?

<-2.5

600

What is the name of a malignant tumor of skeletal muscle and soft tissue with two types (embryonal and alveolar) which is the 3rd most common extra-CNS solid tumor in children, with primary location in head and neck?

a) rhabdomyosarcoma

b) ewing sarcoma

c) chondrosarcoma

a) rhabdomyosarcoma

typically lacks systemic symptoms

600

Which condition can be caused by gram positive cocci or gram negative rods, presents with swelling, blistering and necrotic appearance, foul discharge, most common on trunk, perineum and feet?

Wet gangrene

600

What fracture is common in children and can be a sign of child abuse?

a) metacarpal neck fracture

b) torus buckle fracture

b) torus buckle fracture 

force is applied to immature bone

metacarpal neck fracture is boxers fracture and common in metacarpals 4&5

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