When transferring blood collected by syringe, the tube for which of the following tests is filled first?
a) protime
b) glucose
c) hemoglobin
d) creatinine
A- Protime
How many blood specimens could be collected from a patient undergoing a 4-hour GTT?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 7
d) 5
B- 6
the preferred sample for parentage testing is
a) amniotic fluid
b) blood sample
c) buccal swab
d) chorionic villi
C- Buccal swab
Which test requires strict skin antisepsis procedures before specimen collection?
a) blood culture
b) a blood urea nitrogen
c) complete blood count
d) type and crossmatch
A- blood culture
What does BUN stand for?
BLOOD UREA NITROGEN
2- part question
1) What type of additive is recommended for collecting an ethanol test specimen?
a) EDTA
b) no additive
c) sodium citrate
d) sodium fluoride
2) To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element collection tube, it is suggested that the phlebotomist:
a) collect the trace-element tube last in the order of draw
b) draw it by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system
c) use a syringe and transfer blood into the royal-blue-top tube last
d) use only a royal-blue-top-short draw tube with heparin or EDTA
1) D- Sodium Fluoride
2) B- draw it by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system
2- part question:
1) Which test requires a specimen with a 9:1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant?
a) ethanol
b) glycohemoglobin
c) prothrombin time
d) red cell count
2) Which specimen sometimes requires a chain-of-custody protocol?
a) thyroid profile
b) electrolyte
c) creatine kinase
d) type and screen
1) C- prothrombin time
2) D- type and screen
2- part question:
1) When performing a GTT, the timing should begin
a) as soon as the pt finishes the drink
b) one-half hour after the drink is finished
c) right after the pt. arrives in the lab
d) when the fasting specimen is collected
2) When collecting a blood culture specimen directly from a butterfly into blood culture bottles, which should be filled first:
a) Aerobic
b) Anaerobic
c) either aerobic or anaerobic, it does not matter
d) neither aerobic or anaerobic, a discard tube must be drawn first
1) A- as soon as the pt. finishes the drink
2) A- Aerobic
2- part question:
1) Tegretol is the trade name for
a) aminophylline
b) carbamazepine
c) vancomycin
d) theophylline
2) The CAP requires QC for many waived tests to be performed?
a) before each pt test performed
b) daily and when a new kit is opened
c) on a weekly basis as a minimum
d) when the test manufacturer specifies
1) B- Carbamazepine
2) D- when the test manufacturer specifies
2- PART QUESTIONS
1) CRP
2) BNP
1) C-reactive Protein
2) B-type natriuretic peptide (pg. 422)
2- PART QUESTIONS:
1) Which of the following tubes can be used to collect blood for a type and crossmatch?
a) ETS gray top
b) Pink top
c) Royal Blue top
d) Gel barrier
2) Laboratory interaction with pharmacy most likely involves.
a) TDM
b) HIV testing
c) drug screening
d) GIT timing
1) B- Pink
2) A- TDM
2- part question:
1) Which test is used to monitor heparin therapy?
a) ACT
b) BT
c) PT
d) TNT
2) The most critical aspect of blood culture collection is:
a) the amount of specimen
b) skin antisepsis
c) specimen handling
d) the needle gauge
1) A-ACT
2) B-Skin antisepsis
2- part question:
1) Which of the following tubes can be used to collect blood for a type and crossmatch?
a) ETS gray top
b) pink top
c) royal blue top
d) green top
2) Laboratory interaction with pharmacy most likely involves:
a) TDM tests
b) HIV testing
c) drug screening
d) GIT timing
1) B- Pink top
2) A- TDM tests
2- part question:
1) A chain of custody is
a) a special protocol used when collecting forensic specimens
b) necessary in pt management for therapeutic phlebotomy
c) required for the POC quality assurance program for nursing
d) part of the type and crossmatch procedure for blood bank
2) Excess bleeding from the site following venipuncture may occur when the pt is:
a) taking lithium
b) prediabetic
c) fasting or NPO
d) on Coumadin
1) A- a special protocol used when collecting forensic specimens
2) Coumadin
2- part question:
1) MMR
2) PTT
1) Measles-mumps-rubella
2) PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME
2- Part Question:
1) The hormone detected in a positive urine pregnancy test is:
a) ACTH
b) GH
c) HCG
d) TSH
2) Which of the following is the abbreviation for a test of platelet plug formation?
a) BT
b) TNT
c) ACT
d) PT
2) All the following are abbreviation for coagulation tests except:
a) DIC
b) PTT
c) LOH
d) INR
1) C= HCG
2) C- LOH
2- part question:
1) An autologous blood transfusion is a transfusion of blood
a) directly from the donor to the pt.
b) donated by the pt. for the pt.
c) donated by a compatible relative
d) given by an anonymous donor
2) The typical amount of glucose given to a normal adult during a GTT is:
a) 100 grams
b) 75 grams
c) 50 grams
d) 125 grams
1) B- donated by the pt. for the pt.
2) B- 75 grams
2- part question:
1) A GTT will most likely be discontinued if the pt.
a) vomits 15 minutes after the test starts
b) is unable to provide any urine samples
c) walks around too much during the test
d) drinks water before or during the test
2) Which blood culture container is inoculated first when the specimen has been collected by syringe?
a) aerobic media
b) anaerobic vial
c) ARD container
d) it does not matter
1) A- vomits 15 minutes after the test starts
2) B- anaerobic vial
2- part question:
1) ____ is the minimum level within the therapeutic range
a) peak
b) trough
c) tolerance
d) molecular
2) QuantiFERON TB gold test. Which tubes below are used to collect the specimen.
a) purple, green, red and gold
b) gray, green, yellow and purple
c) light blue, green, red and purple
d) green, red, gold and gray
1) B- Trough
2) B- gray, green, yellow and purple (pg. 416)
3-PART
1) RPR
2) BMP
3) AIDS
1) Rapid plasma reagin
2) Basic Metabolic Profile
3) Acquired Immunodeficiency syndrome
2- part question:
1) A 2-hour postprandial specimen should be drawn?
a) 2-hour before the pt arrives for the test
b) 2 hour after the pt arrives for the test
c) 2 hours before the pt has eaten a meal
d) 2 hours after the pt finishes eating a meal
2) Of the following tests, which is most likely to result in fatal consequences if the pt is misidentified?
a) blood cultures
b) drug screen
c) postprandial glucose
d) type and crossmatch
1) D- 2hour after the pt finishes eating a meal
2) D- type and crossmatch
3- Part question:
1) Which of the following tests is most likely to be affected by trac element contamination?
a) ethanol
b) lipase
c) ferritin
d) zinc
2) For which condition is a unit of blood withdrawn from a pt. as treatment?
a) acute leukemia
b) autologous donation
c) hemochromatosis
d) Rh incompatibility
3) A thick blood smear is used for the detection of:
a) TB
b) Mononucleosis
c) Malaria
d) Asepsis
1) D-zinc
2) C- Hemochromatosis
3) C- Malaria
2- part question:
1) Why is proper antisepsis so important in blood culture collection?
a) pt. dx with septicemia are much more susceptible to infection
b) pathogens will not grow if normal skin flora are present in the culture media
c) more microorganisms are present on the skin of the pt with septicemia
d) contamination of the culture by skin flora can cause a false-positive result
2) TDM is used by physician to:
a) determine a beneficial drug dosage for a pt.
b) maintain "peak" levels of a drug in a pt's system
c) maintain "trough" levels of a drug in a pt's system
d) screen inpatient for abuse of prescriptive drug
1) D- contamination of the culture by skin flora can cause a false-positive result
2) A- determine a beneficial drug dosage for a pt.
2- part question
1) This more plentiful of the electrolytes in the blood and it plays a major role in osmotic pressure
a) Cl`
b) HC03
c) Na+
d) K+
2) Individuals who wish to donate blood in most states must be at least
a) 16 years old and weigh at least 105lb
b) 17 years old and weigh at least 110lb
c) 18 years old and weigh at least 120lb
d0 21 years old and weigh at least 125lb
1) C- Na+ (pg. 421)
2) B- 17 years old and weight at least 110lb
3- part:
1) ESR
2) ESRD
3) CLIA
1) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
2) end-stage renal disease
3) Clinical laboratory improvement Act