Where is the ostia and when does it fill in the cardiac cycle?
superior to the aortic valve and fills in diastole
Name four common pathologies of cardiovascular disease.
Oedema, Hyperaemia, Congestion, Infarction, Haemorrhage, Ischemia, Thrombosis, Embolism
When funny channels open does the membrane potential become more positive or negative?
More positive as funny channels will cause Na+ and K+ influx while K+ channels are closed preventing efflux creating a more positive membrane potential
What would vegetation noted on both sides of the valve leaflet would indicate?
SLE
Which coronary artery (L/R) typically supplies the SA node?
Right coronary artery
Fibrosa, Spongiosa, Ventricularis
Which type of ventricular remodelling would lead to increased pressure load?
Concentric Hypertrophy
Will the steepness of the slow depolarisation phase increase or decrease in response to SNS stimulation?
Increase
At what point would we diagnose RHD rather than RHF?
If there was evidence of damage to the heart valves
What is the effect of angiotensin II on the kidney and how does this effect blood pressure
Increased sodium and water reabsorption resulting in increased ECF volume and thus increase BP
Name three structures found in the posterior mediastinum
Oesophagus, Left vagus nerve, Right vagus nerve, Azygous vein, hemiazygous vein, Aorta (descending), Thoracic Duct
Would a patient with normal blood calcium and calcified deposits on damaged tissue have dystrophic or metastatic calcification?
Dystrophic
How would increased PNS Stimulation affect the following SA/AV node conduction velocity, SA/AV Node pacemaker rate, Atrial/Ventricular muscle contractility.
Decrease conduction velocity and pacemaker rate but little effect on contractility
For a patient with a history of IV drug use presenting with murmur and fever, what tests would you order to investigate for infective endocarditis?
Blood cultures, transthoracic echocardiography and transesophageal echocardiography (if neg on transthoracic)
Hypoalbuminemia will decrease plasma oncotic pressure resulting in oedema. What are two common causes of hypalbuminemia?
Nephrotic syndrome (kidney damage), Pregnancy, protein malnutrition
What are the 5/6 layers of the heart and pericardium?
Endocardium, Myocardium, Epicardium/ visceral pericardium, pericardial space + parietal pericardium
Vegetation requires five key components. What are they?
Fibrin, Red Blood Cells, Platelets, Granulation tissue, calcium
At what left ventricular pressure points does the aortic valve open and close?
Open at 80mmHg, Close 100mmHg
Jones Criteria is used for diagnosis of Rheumatic Heart Disease. Name 3 of its major criteria
Joints, Carditis, nodules, erythema (flat rash), Syndenham Chorea (involuntary rapid movements)
Describe the pathway of the vertebral artery
First branch off the subclavian. Prevertebral, Cervical via C6-C1 vertebral foramen, Atlantic transverse pathway through C1, Intercranial through foramen magnum into viscerocranium and supplies the brain
What structures does the fibrous pericardium attach to?
Sternum via sternopericardial ligaments, Loose connective tissue posteriorly and continuous with diaphragm
Aschoff bodies are granulomatous lesions found in RHF patients. What might you see on a histology slide?
polymorphic nuclei (caterpillars and owl eyes), fibrinoid necrosis, Aschoff giant cell, cardiac myofibres
What event leads to threshold potential being reached in SA and AV nodes
Inward positive ion influx (Na+ and K+) via funny channels then Ca2+ influx via transient Ca2+ channels
New Duke Criteria is used to diagnose infective endocarditis. Name 2 major criteria of the New Duke Criteria
positive Blood culture for typical microorganism, positive blood for atypical microorganism, evidence of vegetation/abscess on echocardiogram, new regurgitation
Name 3 signs and 3 symptoms of chronic heart failure
Signs: Jugular venous distension, peripheral oedema, pulmonary congestion, pleural effusion, S3 gallop
Symptoms: Dysponea, orthopnea, PND, fatigue, abdominal fullness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting