DOCUMENATATION
WHEN HEALTH CARE PROVIDERS FORCE THEIR CULTURAL VALUES ARE BETTER, THEY ARE DISPLAYING
A. ETHNOCENTRISM
B. PROXEMICS
C. NONVERBAL COMMUNICATION
D. CULTURAL IMPOSITION
Answer: D
Rationale: Forcing your own cultural values onto others because you believe your values are better is referred to as cultural imposition
UPON ARRIVING AT THE SCENE OF A DOMESTIC DISPUTE, YOU HEAR YELLING AND THE SOUND OF BREAKING GLASS FROM INSIDE THE RESIDENCE. YOU SHOULD:
A. IMMEDIATELY GAIN ACCESS TO THE PATIENT
B. CAREFULLY ENTER THE HOUSE AND THEN CALL THE POLICE
C. RETREAT TO A SAFE PLACE UNTIL THE POLICE ARRIVE
D. TELL THE PATIENT TO EXIT THE RESIDENCE SO YOU CAN PROVIDE CARE
Answer: C
Rationale: Never enter a scene in which signs of violence are present, including yelling, screaming, or the sound of breaking glass. Law enforcement must secure the scene prior to the EMT’s entry.
A DISEASE THAT CAN BE SPREAD FROM PERSON TO PERSON IS KNOWN AS A
A. INFECTIOUS DISEASE
B. COMMUNICABLE DISEASE
C. TRANSMITTABLE DISEASE
D. SPREADABLE DISEASE
Answer: B
Rationale: A communicable disease can be spread from one person or a species to another.
THE UNAUTHORIZED CONFINEMENT OF A PERSON IS CALLED:
A. ASSAULT
B. BATTERY
C. FALSE IMPRISONMENT
D. SLANDER
Answer: C
Rationale: False imprisonment is defined as the confinement of a person without legal authority or the person’s consent.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PIECES OF PATIENT INFORMATION IS OF LEAST PERTINENCCE WHEN GIVING A VERBAL REPORT TO A NURSE OR PHYSICIAN AT THE HOSPITAL?
A. THE PATIENT NAME AND AGE
B. THE PATIENT'S FAMILY MEDICAL HISTORY
C. VITAL SIGNS THAT MAY HAVE CHANGED
D. MEDICATIONS THAT THE PATIENT IS TAKING
Answer: B
Rationale: Information given to the receiving nurse or physician should include the patient’s name and age, vital signs (especially if they have changed), a summary of the past medical history, and the patient’s response to any treatment that you rendered. Family medical history is not essential in the emergency treatment of a patient.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A COMPONENT OF CONTINUOUS QUALITY IMPROVEMENT(CQI)?
A. PERIODIC REVIEW OF RUN REPORTS
B. DISCUSSION OF NEEDS FOR IMPROVEMENT
C. NEGATIVE FEEDBACK GIVEN TO THOSE WHO MAKE MISTAKES WHILE ON A CALL
D. REMEDIAL TRAINING AS DEEMED NECESSARY BY THE MEDICAL DIRECTOR
Answer: C
Rationale: The purpose of CQI is to ensure that the standard of care is provided on all calls. This involves periodic run report reviews, discussing needs for improvement, and providing remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director. Positive feedback should be provided during this process.
THE MOST EFFECTIVE WAY OF PREVENTING THE SPREAD OF DISEASE IS:
A. HANDWASHING
B. KEEPING IMMUNIZATIONS UP-TO-DATE
C. PLACING A HEPA RESPIRATOR ON THE PATIENT
D. WEARING GOGGLES, GLOVES, GOWN AND A MASK
Answer: A
Rationale: According to the CDC, the most effective way of preventing the spread of disease is thorough handwashing—especially in between patients. Up-to-date immunizations and PPE will minimize the risk of contracting a disease.
FAILURE OF THE EMT TO PROVIDE THE SAME CARE AS ANOTHER EMT WITH THE SAME TRAINING IS CALLED:
A. LIBEL
B. SLANDER
C. NEGLIGENCE
D. ABANDONMENT
Answer: C
Rationale: An EMT could be held liable for negligence if he or she fails to provide the same care as another EMT with the same training would provide in the same situation. For example, if an EMT fails to give oxygen to a patient with shortness of breath (an intervention that is clearly indicated), he or she may be held liable for negligence.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ABOUT THE PATIENT CARE REPORT(PCR) IS TRUE?
A. IT IS NOT A LEGAL DOCUMENT IN THE EYES OF THE LAW
B. IT CANNOT BE USED FOR PATIENT BILLING INFORMATION
C. IT HELPS ENSURE EFFICIENT CONTINUITY OF PATIENT CARE
D. IT IS INTENDED FOR USE ONLY BY THE PREHOSPITAL CARE PROVIDER
Answer: C
Rationale: The PCR is an important document for more than one reason. It helps to ensure efficient continuity of patient care by providing the hospital with an account of all prehospital assessments and treatment. It also serves as a legal document that reflects the care provided by the EMT.
ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE EMS MEDICAL DIRECTOR EXCEPT:
A. EVALUATING THE PATIENT INSURANCE INFORMATION
B. SERVING AS A LIAISON TO THE MEDICAL COMMUNITY
C. ENSURING THAT APPROPRIATE STANDARDS ARE MET BY EMT'S
D. ENSURING APPROPRIATE EMT EDUCATION AND CONTINUING TRAINING
Answer: A
Rationale: Responsibilities of the medical director include serving as a liaison to the medical community, ensuring that appropriate standards are met by EMS personnel, and ensuring appropriate EMT education and continuing training. Insurance matters are handled by the EMS billing department.
WHAT IS THE SECOND STAGE OF RESPONSE IN THE STRESS RESPONSE KNOWN AS THE GENERAL ADAPTATION SYNDROME?
A. RECOVERY
B. EXHAUSTION
C. ALARM
D. REACTION AND RESISTANCE
Answer: D
Rationale: The body typically reacts to stress in three stages: the alarm response, which is followed by reaction and resistance, and then recovery. If the individual cannot reduce stress, the last stage may progress to exhaustion.
AN 8-YR-OLD BOY WAS STRUCK BY A CAR, IS UNCONSCIOUS AND IS BLEEDING FROM THE MOUTH. A POLICE OFFICER TELLS YOU THAT THE IS UNABLE TO CONTACT THE CHILD'S PARENTS. YOU SHOULD:
A. CONTINUE TO TREAT THE CHILD AND TRANSPORT ASAP
B. CEASE ALL TREATMENT UNTIL THE PARENTS CAN BE CONTACTED
C. CONTINUE WITH TREATMENT ONLY IF AUTHORIZED BY MEDICAL CONTROL
D. PROVIDE AIRWAY MANAGEMENT ONLY UNTIL THE PARENTS ARE CONTACTED.
Answer: A
Rationale: The child in this scenario is critically injured and requires immediate treatment and transport; waiting until his parents are contacted wastes time and increases his chance of a negative outcome. If you are unable to contact a minor’s parents or legal guardian, you should proceed with care based on the law of implied consent.