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100

Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1C) test measures the average blood glucose control of an individual over the previous three months. Which of the following values is considered a diagnosis of pre-diabetes?

  •  A. 6.5-7%
  •  B. 5.7-6.4%
  •  C. 5-5.6%
  •  D. >5.6%

Correct Answer: B. 5.7-6.4%

Glycosylated hemoglobin levels between 5.7%-6.4% are considered as pre-diabetes

100

A clinical feature that distinguishes a hypoglycemic reaction from a ketoacidosis reaction is:

  •  A. Blurred vision
  •  B. Diaphoresis
  •  C. Nausea
  •  D. Weakness

Correct Answer: B. Diaphoresis

A hypoglycemic reaction activates a fight-or-flight response in the body which then triggers the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine resulting in diaphoresis.

100

Clinical nursing assessment for a patient with microangiopathy who has manifested impaired peripheral arterial circulation includes all of the following, except:

  •  A. Integumentary inspection for the presence of brown spots on the lower extremities
  •  B. Observation for paleness of the lower extremities
  •  C. Observation for blanching of the feet after the legs are elevated for 60 seconds
  •  D. Palpation for increased pulse volume in the arteries of the lower extremities

Correct Answer: D. Palpation for increased pulse volume in the arteries of the lower extremities

One of the signs and symptoms of impaired peripheral arterial circulation is the absence of a pulse or a weak pulse in the legs or feet. 

100

A nurse went to a patient’s room to do routine vital signs monitoring and found out that the patient’s bedtime snack was not eaten. This should alert the nurse to check and assess for:

  •  A. Elevated serum bicarbonate and decreased blood pH
  •  B. Signs of hypoglycemia earlier than expected
  •  C. Symptoms of hyperglycemia during the peak time of NPH insulin
  •  D. Sugar in the urine

Correct answer: B. Signs of hypoglycemia earlier than expected.

Eating a bedtime snack can prevent blood glucose levels from dropping very low during the night and lessen the Somogyi effect where glucose levels drop significantly between 2:00 a.m. and 3:00 a.m.

100

A client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is being treated in the ER. Which finding would a nurse expect to note as confirming this diagnosis?

  •  A. Elevated blood glucose level and a low plasma bicarbonate
  •  B. Decreased urine output
  •  C. Increased respiration and an increase in pH
  •  D. Comatose state

Correct Answer: A. Elevated blood glucose level and a low plasma bicarbonate

In diabetic acidosis, the arterial pH is less than 7.35, plasma bicarbonate is less than 15mEq/L, and the blood glucose level is higher than 250mg/dl and ketones are present in the blood and urine.

200

A client with DM demonstrates acute anxiety when first admitted for the treatment of hyperglycemia. The most appropriate intervention to decrease the client’s anxiety would be to:

  •  A. Administer a sedative
  •  B. Make sure the client knows all the correct medical terms to understand what is happening
  •  C. Ignore the signs and symptoms of anxiety so that they will soon disappear
  •  D. Convey empathy, trust, and respect toward the client

Correct answer: D. Convey empathy, trust, and respect toward the client.

The most appropriate intervention is to address the client’s feelings related to anxiety.

200

A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with diabetes mellitus who has hyperglycemia. The priority nursing diagnosis would be:

  •  A. High risk for deficient fluid volume
  •  B. Deficient knowledge: disease process and treatment
  •  C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
  •  D. Disabled family coping: compromised

Correct Answer: A. High risk for deficient fluid volume

Increased blood glucose will cause the kidneys to excrete the glucose on the urine. This glucose is accompanied by fluids and electrolytes, causing osmotic diuresis leading to dehydration. 

200

A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the ER with DKA. In the acute phase the priority nursing action is to prepare to:

  •  A. Administer regular insulin intravenously
  •  B. Administer 5% dextrose intravenously
  •  C. Correct the acidosis
  •  D. Apply an electrocardiogram monitor

Correct Answer: A. Administer regular insulin intravenously

Lack (absolute or relative) of insulin is the primary cause of DK1. Intravenous insulin by continuous infusion is the standard of care.

200

The nurse is admitting a client with hypoglycemia. Identify the signs and symptoms the nurse should expect. Select all that apply.

  •  A. Thirst
  •  B. Palpitations
  •  C. Diaphoresis
  •  D. Slurred speech
  •  E. Hyperventilation

Correct Answers: B, C, & D. 

The clinical manifestations of hypoglycemia can be classified as either neuroglycopenic or neurogenic. 

200

A client’s blood gases reflect diabetic acidosis. The nurse should expect:

  •  A. Increased pH
  •  B. Decreased PO2
  •  C. Increased PCO2
  •  D. Decreased HCO3

Correct Answer: D. Decreased HCO3

300

The nurse knows that glucagon may be given in the treatment of hypoglycemia because it:

  •  A. Inhibits gluconeogenesis
  •  B. Stimulates the release of insulin
  •  C. Increases blood glucose levels
  •  D. Provides more storage of glucose.

Correct Answer: C. Increases blood glucose levels

300

A client with diabetes mellitus states, “I cannot eat big meals; I prefer to snack throughout the day.” The nurse should carefully explain that:

  •  A. Regulated food intake is basic to control
  •  B. Salt and sugar restriction is the main concern
  •  C. Small, frequent meals are better for digestion
  •  D. Large meals can contribute to a weight problem

Correct Answer: A. Regulated food intake is basic to control

An understanding of the diet is imperative for compliance. A balance of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats usually apportioned over three main meals and two between meals snacks need to be tailored to the client’s specific needs, with due regard for activity, diet, and therapy.

300

A client with diabetes mellitus has an above-knee amputation because of severe peripheral vascular disease, Two days following surgery, when preparing the client for dinner, it is the nurse’s primary responsibility to:

  •  A. Check the client’s serum glucose level
  •  B. Assist the client out of bed to the chair
  •  C. Place the client in a High-Fowler's position
  •  D. Ensure that the client’s residual limb is elevated

Correct Answer: A. Check the client’s serum glucose level

Because the client has diabetes, it is essential that the blood glucose level is determined before meals to evaluate the success of control of diabetes and the possible need for insulin coverage.

300

Which of the following chronic complications is associated with diabetes?

  •  A. Dizziness, dyspnea on exertion, and coronary artery disease
  •  B. Retinopathy, neuropathy, and coronary artery disease
  •  C. Leg ulcers, cerebral ischemic events, and pulmonary infarcts
  •  D. Fatigue, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and cardiac arrhythmias

Correct Answer: B. Retinopathy, neuropathy, and coronary artery disease

These are all chronic complications of diabetes.

300

Which of the following methods of insulin administration would be used in the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?

  •  A. Subcutaneous
  •  B. Intramuscular
  •  C. IV bolus only
  •  D. IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion

Correct Answer: D. IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion.

An IV bolus of insulin is given initially to control the hyperglycemia; followed by a continuous infusion, titrated to control blood glucose. 

400

A client is in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

  •  A. Kussmaul’s respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
  •  B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
  •  C. Decreased respiration and increased urine output
  •  D. Cheyne-stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct Answer: A. Kussmaul’s respirations and a fruity odor on the breath

Coma and severe acidosis are ushered in with Kussmaul’s respirations (very deep but not labored respirations) and a fruity odor on the breath.

400

Ben injects his insulin as prescribed, but then gets busy and forgets to eat. What will the best assessment of the nurse reveal?

  •  A. The client will be very thirsty.
  •  B. The client will complain of nausea.
  •  C. The client will need to urinate.
  •  D. The client will have moist clammy skin.

Correct Answer: D. The client will have moist clammy skin.

Moist skin is the sign of hypoglycemia, which the client would experience if he injected himself with insulin and did not eat. 

400

A clinical instructor teaches a class for the public about diabetes mellitus. Which individual does the nurse assess as being at the highest risk for developing diabetes?

  •  A. The 50-year-old client who does not get any physical exercise
  •  B. The 56-year-old client who drinks three glasses of wine each evening
  •  C. The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight
  •  D. The 38-year-old client who smokes one pack of cigarettes per day

Correct Answer: C. The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight

Obesity increases the likelihood of developing diabetes mellitus due to the overstimulation of the endocrine system.

400

Genevieve has diabetes type 1 and receives insulin for glycemic control. She tells the nurse that she likes to have a glass of wine with dinner. What will the best plan of the nurse for client education include?

  •  A. The alcohol could cause pancreatic disease.
  •  B. The alcohol could cause serious liver disease.
  •  C. The alcohol could predispose you to hypoglycemia.
  •  D. The alcohol could predispose you to hyperglycemia.

Correct Answer: C. The alcohol could predispose you to hypoglycemia.

Alcohol can potentiate hypoglycemic, not hyperglycemic, effects in the client. 

400

The principal goals of therapy for older patients who have poor glycemic control are:

  •  A. Enhancing the quality of life.
  •  B. Decreasing the chance of complications.
  •  C. Improving self-care through education.
  •  D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D. All of the above.

Older adults with diabetes are at substantial risk for both acute and chronic microvascular and cardiovascular complications of the disease. 

500

Harry is a diabetic patient who is experiencing a reaction to alternating periods of nocturnal hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. The patient might be manifesting which of the following?

  •  A. Uncontrolled diabetes
  •  B. Somogyi phenomenon
  •  C. Brittle diabetes
  •  D. Diabetes insipidus

Correct Answer: B. Somogyi phenomenon

The Somogyi phenomenon manifests itself with nocturnal hypoglycemia, followed by a marked increase in glucose and an increase in ketones.

500

An older woman with diabetes mellitus visits the clinic concerning her condition. Which of the following symptoms might an older woman with diabetes mellitus complain?

  •  A. Anorexia
  •  B. Pain intolerance
  •  C. Weight loss
  •  D. Perineal itching

Correct Answer: D. Perineal itching

Older women might complain of perineal itching due to vaginal candidiasis. In diabetes, blood glucose levels can go abnormally high, which can therefore provide ideal conditions for naturally present yeast to grow and also diminishes the body’s ability to fight infection.

500

Gregory is a 52-year-old man identified as high-risk for diabetes mellitus. Which laboratory test should a nurse anticipate a physician would order for him? Select all that apply.

  •  A. Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG)
  •  B. Two-hour Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
  •  C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1C)
  •  D. Fingerstick glucose three times daily
  •  E. Urinalysis and urine culture

Correct Answer: A & B.

When an older person is identified as high-risk for diabetes, appropriate testing would include FPG and OGTT. An FPG greater than 140 mg/dL usually indicates diabetes. The OGTT is to determine how the body responds to the ingestion of carbohydrates in a meal.

500

According to the National Diabetes Statistics Report, diabetes remains one of the leading causes of death in the United States since 2010. Which of the following factors are risks for the development of diabetes mellitus? Select all that apply.

  •  A. Age over 45 years
  •  B. Overweight with a waist/hip ratio >1
  •  C. Having a consistent HDL level above 40 mg/dl
  •  D. Maintaining a sedentary lifestyle
  •  E. Polycystic ovary syndrome

Correct Answer: A, B, D, & E.

Diabetes mellitus (DM) is a metabolic disease, involving inappropriately elevated blood glucose levels. The main subtypes of DM are Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) and Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), which classically result from defective insulin secretion (T1DM) and/or action (T2DM).

500

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the assessment of this client:

  •  A. Blurred or distorted vision
  •  B. Flashes of lights or floaters
  •  C. Sudden loss of vision
  •  D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D. All of the above

Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes that is characterized by chronic and progressive damage to the retina. Symptoms include blurring of vision (due to macular edema), flashes of lights, and sudden loss of vision (due to retinal detachment).

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