Radiology
Aural Blast Injury Acoustic Trauma and Hearing Loss
Burn Care
Military Working Dogs
Whole Blood Transfusion
100

What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner?

Role 3 

100

True or False. Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. 

False 

100

Burn casualties with injuries greater than _____ total body surface area are at high risk of hypothermia. 

>20%

100

______ is the heart/pulse rate range for a military working dog at rest.

60-80bpm

100

How long can whole blood collected in the anticoagulant Citrate Phosphate Dextrose (CPD) be stored? 

21 days 

200

Members of the trauma team should have ____ aprons and thyroid shields available near the trauma bay for radiation safety.

lead

200

Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either ______ or ______.

temporary or permanent 

200

What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey?

comatose patients, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns and burns over 40% total body surface area

200

Pulse oximetry probes used for people (typically finger probes) are best places on the ______ for optimal reliability in unconscious, sedated, or anesthetized dogs.  

tongue 

200

If stored at room temperature, fresh whole blood must be destroyed if not used within what time period?

24hrs

300

The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-Posterior chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n)?

Portable X-ray Machine 

300

The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: ______, ______, ______, ______, __________, __________, and ______.

hearing loss, tinnitus, aural fulness, recruitment, difficulty localizing sounds, difficulty hearing in a noisy background, and vertigo

300

What are clinical signs of inhalation injury?

progressive voice changes, soot about the mouth and nares, hypoxia, and shortness of breath

300

What are the 3 characteristic breathing patterns typically displayed in military working dogs in respiratory distress?

obstructive, restrictive, and parenchymal 

300

How often should titer and transfusion transmitted disease retesting be conducted?

90 days

400

Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is ____?

6 feet 

400

What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in the middle ear?

Treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical antibiotic.
EX: 4 drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin in the affected ear 3 times a day for 7 days

400

What is the Rule of 10s burn fluid resuscitation equation?

10mL/hr x %TBSA

400

Hypothermia in military working dogs caused by low body temperature due to trauma, toxicity, underlying illness, or anesthesia and surgery is classified as _____ _____

secondary hypothermia

400

True or False. In situations where there are a limited number of donors and dire need for blood, no more than three units may be taken from a single donor.

False

500

Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. True or False?

True

500

Patients with thrombosis with thrombocytopenia syndrome (TTS) greater than ____ losses in three consecutive frequencies should be considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when not otherwise contraindicated. 

25db

500

______ is the most common infectious complication with pediatric burn patients and usually present within 5 days of injury.

cellulitis 

500

Calculate the approximate safe but effective crystalloid bolus volume for a 55 pound military working dog experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. 

550mL

500

Storage lesion describes the degradation of the RBC involving the loss of what?

membrane plasticity 

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