Pharmacology
The Difficult Patient
Alcohol and Other Fun Drugs
So You Want to Get Sued?
This Will Be on the Test
100

What is the first-line class of medications for OCD?

SSRIs

(or TCAs with CBT)

100

A patient presents combative with HTN and tachycardia. Admits to smoking crack. First line treatment? 

Benzos

100

Describe the symptoms of opiate withdrawal. 


100

Which is more likely to indicate an organic etiology over primary psychosis for the patient's symptoms: visual or auditory hallucinations? 

Visual hallucinations → think delirium, drug intoxication, or withdrawal, not primary psychosis.

100

What is the (mostly) pathognomonic exam finding for serotonin syndrome?

Myoclonus 

200
What is the BB warning for droperidol?

QT interval prolongation and the development of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (torsades des pointes)

200

What is the first step in management of a combative or aggressive patient?

Verbal de-escalation

200

A patient who has been chronically taking oxycodone was found unresponsive. EMS administered Narcan in route. He arrives with BP 200/100, HR 122, diaphoretic, and agitated. What is the best medication to alleviate his symptoms?

Clonidine 

Alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that may be administered to blunt some opioid withdrawal symptoms, such as tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, restlessness, and dysphoria.

200

A 14 yo F p/w her parents due to their concern for anorexia. Over several months, she has reported loss of appetite and has had a 20 pound weight loss. She has thin hair and is sweating, saying she always feels hot. Vitals notable for HR of 120. Her parents would like her evaluated by psychiatry. Which two tests are most likely to change ED management/disposition?

Pregnancy test, TSH

200

Which SSRI is most likely to precipitate SSRI withdrawal and why?

Paxil (paroxetine) - shortest half-life, metabolized quickly, and lacks active metabolites

300

23 yo w/ h/o substance use disorder pp/w 7 months of feeling on edge, difficulty concentrating, muscle aches, & intermittent palpitations with episodes of derealization and feeling dizzy. Exam and labs are unrevealing. Which class of meds are the best first-line agents to treat the most likely disease?

Serotonergic antidepressant (SSRIs/SNRIs)

300

35 yo F p/w diffuse abdominal pain, fatigue, & intermittent headaches. Has 6+ ED visits over the past 8 months with similar concerns, including chest pain, joint pain, & nausea. Extensive workups, including CTs, labs, EKGs/stress tests, have been unremarkable. She says symptoms significantly interfere with her daily life and job performance, & she would really like an answer this time. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Somatic symptom disorder


300

What distinguishes delirium tremens from simple alcohol withdrawal?

Time of onset and agitation/hallucinations 

Withdrawal = onset 6–24 hr after last drink; tremor, anxiety, tachycardia, hypertension

Delirium tremens = 48–96 hr after last drink; agitation, hallucinations, autonomic instability

300

A patient with a fib on Eliquis p/w behavior changes. He lives alone and was last seen 3 days ago. His daughter is requesting psych evaluation due to verbal abusiveness. Which two studies are most likely to affect ED management/disposition and should be obtained.

CTH, UA

300

A patient p/w AMS. BP 80/40 and HR 180. EKG is shown. Best first treatment?


Sodium bicarb


TCA OD = sodium channel blockade

400

For each buzz phrase, give the diagnosis:

Lead-pipe rigidity

Hyperreflexia + clonus

Tremor + ataxia + confusion

Visual hallucinations + tremors + autonomic instability

Lead-pipe rigidity --> NMS

Hyperreflexia + clonus --> Serotonin syndrome

Tremor + ataxia + confusion --> Lithium toxicity

Visual hallucinations + tremors + autonomic instability -->DTs

400

Name one personality disorder for each of the clusters A-C.

A - odd/eccentric. Schizoid, schizotypal, paranoid.

B - dramatic/emotional. Histrionic, antisocial, borderline, narcissitic. 

C - anxious/fearful. Avoidant, OC, dependent.

400

What is the correct order of dextrose and thiamine administration for alcoholics? Why?

Thiamine before dextrose


Alcoholics are already thiamine deficient. Administering a glucose load without sufficient thiamine dramatically increases the demand for the remaining thiamine stores as the brain begins to metabolize the sudden influx of glucose. This rapid depletion of limited thiamine reserves can trigger acute neurological deterioration, leading to cell death and the onset of Wernicke's encephalopathy/Korsakoff syndrome.

400

A patient with anorexia is boarding and awaiting placement. She suddenly develops SOB and pedal edema. Which electrolyte abnormality do you most expect to see?

Hypophosphatemia 

Can lead to weakness, paresthesias, AMS, and decreased cardiac function, which may manifest as heart failure.

400

Pt with h/o bipolar disorder p/w vomiting. Vitals normal, but she is confused. Lithium level is 5.6 mEq/L and creatinine is 1.9. What is the best next step in management?

Dialysis


500

Describe the pharmacology of buprenorphine. 

High-affinity partial mu agonist = binds tightly to the receptor, displacing or preventing other opioids from binding to it. It only has partial activity at this receptor, so does not give the same high, thus curbing overuse. If buprenorphine is administered to a patient who is actively intoxicated with opioids, it may displace the currently bound opiate and precipitate withdrawal.

500

Describe the difference between schizotypal, schizoid, and schizophrenia.

Schizotypal and schizoid = PDs.

Schizotypal = demonstrate eccentric behavior but maintain an overall firm grip on reality

Schizoid = doesn't desire relationships, demonstrates emotional coldness, indifferent to praise/criticism 

Schizophrenia = >6 mo of psychosis, pt can't tell what's real or imagined

500

What is unique about phenobarbital's mechanism of action that makes it particularly effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal?

Inhibits glutamate receptors


The barbiturate phenobarbital differs from alcohol and benzodiazepines in that it uniquely inhibits the excitatory glutamate receptor, reducing agitation and seizure potential.

500

An 85 yo pt presents from geri psych unit with AMS. He is afebrile.  His exam is notable for profound confusion and flushed skin. No focal deficits, nuchal rigidity, or trauma. Labs including UA and CTH are normal. What other information may yield this patient's diagnosis?

Med list

500

Name the tetrad of NMS.

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