300
In Wacholder’s risk difference model, where he fits the probability itself (vs. a transformation of the probability) with a specific link, what measure of association does the intercept (i.e., the alpha) represent? Assume that it is a simple model with a binary outcome and single binary predictor variable (x=1 if exposed, x=0 if unexposed): Pr(D=1 | E=e) = alpha + beta1*x1
Absolute risk of the unexposed