Shoot Up or Ship Out
Borrowed Parts, Big Problems
Comfort Measures Only
Tiny Footprints
Better Call Risk Management
100

What is the most common life-threatening infection in IVDU patients?

infective endocarditis

100

What immunosuppressant class increases risk for nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity?

Calcineurin inhibitors (e.g., cyclosporine, tacrolimus)

100

What does the acronym ‘GOALS’ stand for in palliative conversations?

Goals, Options, Affirmation, Limits, Support

100

What type of fracture is highly specific for child abuse in infants?

Posterior rib fractures

100

True or False: Informed consent is always required before treating a minor.

False – exceptions include emergencies and emancipated minors

200

What vascular complication, often seen in IDU patients, presents as a pulsatile mass and can mimic an abscess?

Mycotic aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm

200

Which organ transplant has the highest risk of infection post-op?

Lung

200

What medication class is commonly used for terminal secretions (“death rattle”)?

Anticholinergics (e.g., glycopyrrolate, scopolamine)

200

What triad suggests abusive head trauma (formerly “shaken baby syndrome”)?

Subdural hematoma, retinal hemorrhages, and encephalopathy.

200

Which law allows EDs to stabilize and treat all patients regardless of insurance status?

EMTALA

300

Which antibiotic should you avoid in opioid users due to QT prolongation?

Methadone + macrolides/fluoroquinolones combo (esp. azithromycin)

300

What vaccine should be avoided in transplant patients?

Live vaccines (e.g., MMR, varicella)

300

What is the ethical principle behind withdrawing life-sustaining treatment in alignment with a patient’s wishes?

Autonomy

300

What is the purpose of a skeletal survey in suspected abuse?

To detect occult fractures, especially in children under 2 years.

300

What must be documented when a patient refuses a test or procedure?

Capacity, risks discussed, alternatives, and that refusal was voluntary

400

What is the first-line treatment for acute opioid withdrawal in the ED?

Buprenorphine (or clonidine if not available)

400

Which opportunistic infection are transplant patients commonly prophylaxed for with TMP-SMX?

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP)

400

What is the difference between palliative care and hospice?

Palliative care can be given at any stage of illness; hospice is for end-of-life (usually <6 months prognosis)

400

What lab findings would support trauma over a bleeding disorder?

Normal platelet count and coagulation studies.

400

What should you document to legally protect against missed MI or PE?

Thorough risk stratification, shared decision-making, and follow-up instructions

500

Which skin infection in IDU patients may require surgical debridement?

necrotizing fasciitis
500

What is the most common cause of graft failure within the first week post-transplant?

Hyperacute rejection

500

True or False: You must wait for palliative care or hospice teams before initiating comfort-focused care in the ED.

False – ED providers can and should initiate palliative interventions when appropriate

500

A non-ambulatory infant has bruises on the torso, ears, and neck. What rule helps identify high-risk bruising patterns?

TEN-4 rule (Torso, Ears, Neck in under 4 years or any bruising in under 4 months old)

500

In the ED, who can legally override an advance directive in a life-threatening emergency?

No one

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