EKG-Block
What does an AV block do to the heart's conduction?
A. Speeds it up
B. Makes it stronger
C. Delays or blocks the signal
D. Starts in the ventricles
C. Delays or blocks the signal
What typically causes a heart attack in atherosclerosis?
A. Artery spasm
B. Plaque rupture and clot formation
C. Low blood pressure
D. High HDL levels
B. Plaque rupture and clot formation
*** DOUBLE POINTS***
Which hormone stimulates hunger and is made in the stomach?
A. Leptin
B. Cortisol
C. Ghrelin
D. Insulin
C. Ghrelin
What does the abbreviation "BID PO" mean in a prescription?
A. Twice daily by injection
B. Twice daily by mouth
C. As needed by mouth
D. Four times a day by injection
B. Twice daily by mouth
Which of the following is a typical sign of ischemia on an EKG?
A. ST elevation
B. T wave inversion
C. Q wave
D. U wave
B. T wave inversion
Which PR interval indicates a possible 1st-degree AV block?
A. 0.12 sec
B. 0.16 sec
C. 0.22 sec
D. 0.08 sec
C. 0.22 sec
An ABI of 0.75 suggests what?
A. Normal blood flow
B. Moderate PAD
C. Severe hypertension
D. Healthy arteries
B. Moderate PAD
What happens if a child becomes obese during childhood?
A. The size of their fat cells increases permanently.
B. They develop more fat cells (hyperplasia), which persist for life
C. They burn fat with more difficulty.
D. Their metabolism slows down.
B. They develop more fat cells (hyperplasia), which persist for life
What is a common effect of beta-blockers on exercise response?
A. Higher maximum heart rate
B. Blunted heart rate response to workload
C. Increased VO2 max
D. Enhanced warm-up period
B. Blunted heart rate response to workload
ST elevation of ≥1 mm suggests what?
A. Old infarct
B. Subendocardial infarction (NSTEMI)
C. Acute myocardial injury (STEMI)
D. Sinus tachycardia
C. Acute myocardial injury (STEMI)
What pattern is seen in Mobitz I (Wenckebach)?
A. Constant PR intervals with dropped QRS
B. Progressively longer PR intervals until a QRS is dropped
C. Wide QRS with inverted T waves
D. PR intervals always within normal limits
B. Progressively longer PR intervals until a QRS is dropped
Which of the following is classified as an obstructive lung disease?
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. COPD
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Pneumoconiosis
B. COPD
What characterizes Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
A. Insulin resistance
B. High insulin levels
C. Absolute insulin deficiency due to β-cell destruction
D. Caused solely by obesity
C. Absolute insulin deficiency due to β-cell destruction
Which side effect is commonly associated with ACE inhibitors but not ARBs?
A. Low potassium
B. Muscle cramps
C. Persistent dry cough
D. Insomnia
C. Persistent dry cough
What defines a significant (pathologic) Q wave?
A. Width ≥ 0.02 seconds and depth ≥ 1/2 of QRS
B. Width ≥ 0.04 seconds and depth ≥ 1/3 of QRS
C. Width ≥ 0.08 seconds and depth ≥ 2/3 of QRS
D. Width ≥ 0.1 seconds and depth ≥ 1/4 of QRS
B. Width ≥ 0.04 seconds and depth ≥ 1/3 of QRS
In a 3rd-degree AV block, what is true about atria and ventricles?
A. They beat in sync but slower
B. They beat independently of each other
C. No P waves are present
D. PR intervals are consistent
B. They beat independently of each other
Which of the following is NOT part of the BODE index?
A. BMI
B. Dyspnea
C. Blood pressure
D. Exercise capacity
C. Blood pressure
In Gestational Diabetes, hyperglycemia occurs because:
A. The pancreas produces excess insulin
B. Insulin sensitivity increases
C. The pancreas fails to compensate for insulin resistance during pregnancy
D. The baby uses too much glucose
C. The pancreas fails to compensate for insulin resistance during pregnancy
Which type of diuretic is most likely to cause hypokalemia and increased urination?
A. Loop diuretics
B. Potassium-sparing
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
A. Loop diuretics
Which leads are used to identify an inferior wall infarction?
A. V1–V4
B. V5, V6
C. I, aVL
D. II, III, aVF
D. II, III, aVF
***DOUBLE POINTS***
What is a classic ECG sign of RBBB in lead V1?
A. W-shaped QRS
B. M-shaped QRS (rSR′ or rR′)
C. Absent QRS
D. Inverted P waves
B. M-shaped QRS (rSR′ or rR′)
Which of the following is an example of restrictive lung disease?
A. COPD
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Asthma
D. Emphysema
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
Why does obesity significantly increase the risk of developing Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM)?
A. Enlarged fat cells in obesity become insulin-resistant, leading to chronic high insulin and blood glucose levels
B. Fat cells prevent glucose absorption
C. Obesity causes the pancreas to stop producing insulin entirely
D. Obese individuals always have low insulin levels
A. Enlarged fat cells in obesity become insulin-resistant, leading to chronic high insulin and blood glucose levels
***DOUBLE POINTS***
What is a potential first-dose side effect of alpha-blockers?
A. Dry cough
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Increased heart rate
D. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Orthostatic hypotension
***DOUBLE POINTS***
What are two hallmark EKG findings of a posterior infarct?
A. Tall Q wave and ST elevation in V1
B. Tall R wave and ST depression in V1–V2
C. T wave inversion and U wave
D. ST elevation in aVR
B. Tall R wave and ST depression in V1–V2