Cardiac 1
Cardiac 2
Skin
Respiratory
Renal
100
This is the product of stroke volume and heart rate
Commonly written as SV x HR = ?
What is cardiac output?
Be sure you can define cardiac output and the components of the formula
100
These are the three types of angina.
What are unstable, stable, and variant?
Unstable - this is under Acute Coronary Syndrome - rule out ischemia/infarction
Stable - this is associated with a fixed coronary obstruction
Variant/vasospasmastic - vasospasm of a coronary artery
100
This virus causes cold sores and genital herpes.
What is the Herpes simplex virus?
There are 2 types, HSV1 and HSV2. Usually HSV1 causes the cold sores and HSV2 causes genital herpes, but either type can cause lesions in either site.
100
Provide 3 clinical manifestations of tuberculosis (TB).
What are:
- Chronic cough
- Productive cough with purulent sputum
- Low-grade fever
- Hemoptysis
- Night sweats
- Fatigue
- Weight loss
- Malaise
100
This lab is often used to judge the effectiveness of the kidneys. When this lab value doubles in number, that means the renal function has fallen to half of its normal state.
What is creatinine?
Also, review the normal values of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and its meaning.
(Ex. Elevated creatinine and reduced GFR indicate a decrease in renal function.)
200
Valvular fibrosis and calcification can occur as a normal response to the _______ process.
What is the aging process?
The most common cause of aortic stenosis is aortic sclerosis, which is the calcification of the aortic valve that occurs in older adults.
200
This lab value indicates cardiac cell death. Sometimes it can take hours for this lab to be elevated. That is why chest pain patients are admitted to the hospital for serial (multiple timed) blood draws.
What is Cardiac Troponin I (cTnI)?
200
During a skin assessment of a 28-year-old patient with dark skin tone, the nurse observes a raised, reddish scar around one of the patient's tattoo sites. The scar has grown over and past the original tattoo. The nurse explains to the patient that he has this skin disorder.
What is a keloid scar?
200
A client with a diagnosis of COVID-19 was recently intubated. During the report, the nurses state that the client has not received adequate mouth care since the intubation. The nurse knows this is a risk factor for what type of pneumonia?
What is Ventilator Associated Pneumonia?
Other risks include:
Aspiration, inappropriate body positioning, inadequate suctioning, circuit contamination
Know the difference between community-acquired, hospital-acquired, and ventilator-associated pneumonia.
200
A sudden onset of glomerular inflammation characterizes this inflammatory kidney condition and may follow a common bacterial infection, such as strep throat (Streptococcus pyogenes).
What is acute glomerulonephritis?
(sometimes also called post-infectious glomerulonephritis)
300
This EKG finding refers to the electrical impulse seen, indicating a depolarization of the ventricle.
What is the QRS complex?
Know the Sinus Rhythm components - PQRST, What indicates depolarization (De-Squeeze) and repolarization (Refill).
The p-wave measures atrial depolarization. The QRS - complex measures ventricular depolarization. The T - wave represents ventricular repolarization.
300
Cardiac ______________ refers to the ability of the healthy myocardium to stretch and contract in response to the heart filling with blood.
What is contractility?
300
A 35-year-old male has partial-thickness burns on his right arm, the front of his trunk, and the front of his left leg. Using this rule, the medical provider determined that the total body surface area burned is 36%.
What is the rule of nines?
Know the basic idea. You will not be asked to calculate a TBSA burned percentage.
300
These patients are at high risk for atelectasis due to decreased movement and prolonged time in the supine position.
Who are:
- post-op patients
- bedbound/limited mobility patients
- patients who take shallow breaths (due to pain, neuromuscular weakness, sedation)
300
What phase of acute kidney injury includes hyperkalemia alongside little to no urine output?
Oliguric phase
400
Claudication is a symptom in patients with this disease caused by narrowing or occlusion due to atherosclerotic plaques of arteries outside of the heart and brain.
What is peripheral arterial disease (PAD)?
400
A patient with this cardiac arrhythmia is at increased risk for ischemic stroke because the quivering atria allow for stasis of blood and subsequent clot formation.
What is atrial fibrillation? (A fib)
400
This disease can present in the skin as a butterfly-shaped rash across the cheeks and nose and involves the production of autoantibodies.
What is Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
400
A patient suffered a penetrating chest wound after a motor vehicle accident. The patient arrives to the ER with difficulty in breathing and chest pain. The nurse notes a trachea shift. What should the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
What is a tension pneumothorax?
Know the different types of pneumothorax including: spontaneous, traumatic, tension.
400
The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone mechanism produces this protein from the liver?
What is Angiotensinogen?
Know each step of RAAS.
(Angiotensinogen from the liver, renin from the kidneys, ACE from the lungs, aldosterone from the adrenal glands.)
500
An echocardiogram is used to diagnose these 2 cardiac conditions.
What are heart failure and valvular disease?
500
A provider suspects this type of heart failure after finding the patient has jugular vein distention, ascites, hepatomegaly, and lower extremity edema.
What is right ventricular failure?
Know the difference in pathophysiology and presentation for right ventricular failure versus left ventricular failure.
500
Suspected diagnosis of pityriasis rosea. The nurse notes the presence of a single, oval-shaped, pink patch on the patient's trunk called__________.
What is a Herald patch?
500
This imaging test is used to assess the ventilation and perfusion of the lungs.
What is a V/Q scan?
Ventilation/perfusion (VQ) scan or ratio
The most common causes of high V/Q are a pulmonary embolus or emphysema that impairs blood flow to a segment of a lung.
500
This term describes the accumulation of nitrogenous waste products and toxins in the blood that leads to systemic effects in patients with chronic kidney disease.
What is uremia?
Review
Table 32.13 Systemic Effects of Chronic Kidney Disease and Uremia
and
Figure 32.12 Common Signs and Symptoms of Kidney Dysfunction.