Part 61
The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating
A. under IFR in positive control airspace.
B. under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in Class A airspace.
C. in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight.
B. under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in Class A airspace.
Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR Part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?
A. Owner.
B. Operator.
C. Pilot-in-command.
C. Pilot-in-command.
Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
A. Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.
B. Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected.
C. The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.
B. Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected.
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A. Reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible.
B. Rely on the kinesthetic sense.
C. Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.
C. Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.
Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?
A. The FAA.
B. The medical examiner.
C. The pilot.
C. The pilot.
In order to qualify for BasicMed, you must have received a comprehensive examination from:
A. An FAA-designated Aviation Medical Examiner within the previous 60 months.
B. A state-licensed physician within the previous 24 months.
C. A state-licensed physician within the previous 48 months.
C. A state-licensed physician within the previous 48 months.
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
A. list an alternate airport on the flight plan and become familiar with the instrument approaches to that airport.
B. list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
C. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.
C. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.
What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?
A. Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.
B. Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
C. Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.
B. Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as
A. elevator illusions.
B. autokinesis.
C. false horizons.
C. false horizons.
The most important key to risk management is
A. understanding pilot predisposition.
B. management of external pressures.
C. the sense of security provided by experience.
B. management of external pressures.
Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?
A. All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.
B. Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
C. Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.
B. Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
For an airplane, determine the weather minimum conditions required at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate on your IFR flight plan.
A. From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.
B. From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.
C. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.
C. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.
If you experience tunnel vision and cyanosis, you may have symptoms of
A. hypoxia.
B. hyperventilation.
C. carbon monoxide poisoning.
A. hypoxia.
An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of
A. tumbling backwards.
B. a noseup attitude.
C. a descent with the wings level.
A. tumbling backwards.
One purpose of crew resource management (CRM) is to give crews tools to
A. recognize and mitigate hazards.
B. maintain currency with regulations.
C. reduce the need for outside resources.
A. recognize and mitigate hazards.
After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?
A. 6 months.
B. 90 days.
C. 12 months.
B. 6 calendar months.
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
A. and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B. fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C. fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B. fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
A. Tingling sensations.
B. Visual acuity.
C. Decreased breathing rate.
A. Tingling sensations.
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if
A. kinesthetic senses are ignored.
B. eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.
C. body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.
C. body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.
Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?
A. Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
B. Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision making process.
C. Poor risk management and lack of stress management.
A. Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least
A. six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check.
B. six instrument flights under actual IFR conditions.
C. three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours.
A. six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check.
What are the alternate minimums for an airport with a precision approach procedure?
A. 400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
B. 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
C. 800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility
B. 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
Which of the following is a correct response to counteract the feelings of hypoxia in flight?
A. Promptly descend to a lower altitude.
B. Increase cabin air flow.
C. Avoid sudden inhalations.
A. Promptly descend to a lower altitude.
Which system is most likely responsible for a pilot suffering spatial disorientation?
A. Cardiopulmonary system.
B. Autokinesis system.
C. Vestibular system.
C. Vestibular system.
Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
A. Application of stress management and risk element procedures.
B. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.
C. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
C. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.