Unit 1
Unit 2
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100

Which type of fracture could be an indicator of child abuse?

Spiral fracture

100

Aids is hallmarked by the CD4 count to be what?

Less than 200 

100

Explain the difference between hospice and palliative care. 

Hospice care provides comfort and dignity for patients expected to die within 6 months or less. 

Palliative care provides management of pain and other symptoms to improve quality of life. 

100

A patient smokes 10 cigarettes a day for 60 years. What is their pack-year?

30 pack-years

100

A doctor has ordered Albuterol 2.5 mg nebulizer for x 2 doses for a respiratory client. the medicine is supplied as 2.5 mg/ 0.5 ml. What will the total volume in amount be for both doses?

1 mL

200

Which type of MS is most common?

Relapsing-remitting MS

200

What is the trademark symptom of Lupus?

Butterfly rash

200

What is confabulation?

A neuropsychiatric disorder wherein a patient generates a false memory without the intention of deceit

200

A patient has a respiration rate of 7/min, a pulse of 54 beats/min and a bp of 198/84. This is an example of what? It is indicative of what diagnosis?

Cushings triad 

IICP

200

15 mg of Torecan is ordered; available solution contains 10mg/2ml. How many ml will you administer?

3 mL

300

Name the class of medications used to treat Osteoporosis. What is important for a patient to know about this medication?

Bisphosphonates. Take the medication 30 minutes prior to eating and remain in an upright position for 30 minutes after taking.

300

During a routine checkup a 72 year old patient is advised to receive a influenza vaccine injection. He questions this saying "I had one last year. Why do I need another one?" What is the nurses best response?
A. "The effectiveness of the vaccine wears off after 6 months."
B. "Each year a new vaccine is developed based on the flu strains that are likely to be in circulation."
C. "When you reach 65 years old, you need booster shots on an annual basis."
D. "Taking the flu vaccine each year allows you to build your immunity to a higher level each time.

B

300

A patient has a TNM score of T4N2M1. What is their overall prognosis going to be?

Poor prognosis

300
Which TB medication should liver function tests be monitored?

Isoniazid

300

Order: Vancomycin 40 mg/kg/d divided into q.6h. doses IV.
The manufacturer recommends reconstituting 500mg vial with 10 mL, yielding 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will you administer for each dose if the client weighs 90 lb?

8.2 mL

400

First line therapy for Osteoarthritis includes Acetaminophen. What lab values would a nurse want to check prior to administration?

Any labs involving the liver. AST & ALT, total protein and albumin 

400

Name this deformity common in rheumatoid arthritis.

Swan neck deformity

400

The nurse provides care for clients who receive medical care at a community health clinic. Which client does the nurse prioritize?

a. An adolescent client who is diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) who has only slept 2 hours in the past 2 days.

b. An adult client, diagnosed with bipolar affective disorder and prescribed lithium, who reports diarrhea and vomiting.

c. A client who is prescribed risperidone and presents with altered mentation, high fever, and muscle rigidity.

d. A client who is prescribed ziprasidone and reports blurred vision and increased thirst.

C

400

What type of leukemia presents with recurrent infections, petechiae, and hematuria?

AML

400

Patients BP= 124/84

ICP= 14

Calculate the patients CPP.

CPP= 83

500

Name the 5 P's of neuromuscular assessment.

Pain, pulse, pallor, paresthesia & paralysis

500

A patient is suspected of having Fibromyalgia. The patient has further testing done to confirm the diagnosis. The patients SED rate comes back elevated. What does this mean in relation to fibromyalgia. 

The patient is negative for Fibromyalgia. This is because an increase in SED rate means that inflammation is present. Fibromyalgia patients do not have inflammation. 

500

The nurse employed in an emergency department is assigned to triage clients coming to the emergency department for treatment on the evening shift. The nurse should assign priority to which client?
a. A client complaining of muscle aches, a headache, and malaise
b. A client who twisted her ankle when she fell while rollerblading
c. A client with a minor laceration on the index finger sustained while cutting an eggplant
d. A client with chest pain who states that he just ate pizza that was made with a very spicy sauce.

D

500

An elderly patient comes into the ED presenting with shakiness, altered level of consciousness, diaphoresis, and an increased HR. 

The nurse asks a few history questions while taking the patient to get a CT. The nurse stops the patient when they answer a particular question. What specific question was asked and why did the nurse stop?

Are you diabetic? 

Low blood glucose can mimic stroke symptoms. 

500

The physician writes an order for a loading dose of theophylline (Lanophyllin) 5 mg/kg. The client weighs 65 kg. The medication is supplied 150 mg/15 mL. How many mL would you administer?

32.5 mL

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